DoD Annual TrainingComprehensive Study Set

Why Does Yogurt Taste Sharp

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QUESTION 1

Select the ultimate source of energy for nearly every organism on this planet. XPlants b. Sugars c. Heat d. The sun

ANSWER

d. The sun

QUESTION 2

Which of the following is a common energy currency in living cells that powers most living organisms? Heat b. ATP c. Sunlight d. Phosphate

ANSWER

b. ATP

QUESTION 3

what molecule(s) link the light reactions (stage 1 of photosynthesis) to the Calvin cycle (stage 2 of photosynthesis)? The sugars b. The oxygen and carbon dioxide molecules c. The water d. The electron shuttles (ATP and NADPH)

ANSWER

d. The electron shuttles (ATP and NADPH)

QUESTION 4

For what purpose does a plant use the sugars produced during photosynthesis? All of the above b. For making cellulose, which makes the bulk of a plant c. For storage d. For cellular respiration to produce ATP

ANSWER

a. All of the above

QUESTION 5

Water behind a dam has a certain amount of stored energy that can be released as the water falls over the top of the dam. It may be enough energy to turn a mill wheel or an electricity-generating turbine. Choose the term that best describes the type of energy stored in the water at the top of the dam. Radiant b. Chemical c. Kinetic d. Potential

ANSWER

d. Potential

QUESTION 6

Why does yogurt taste sharp? It has not been aged long enough to mellow. b. The taste is from the large amount of carbon dioxide it contains, and carbon dioxide tastes sharp. c. The taste is from the small amount of alcohol it contains, and alcohol tastes sharp. d. The taste is from the lactic acid it contains, and acids taste sharp.

ANSWER

d. The taste is from the lactic acid it contains, and acids taste sharp.

QUESTION 7

The followingQuestions(s) relate to the data table below, showing typical fluctuating pH and dissolved oxygen levels in a fish pond with a heavy concentration of algae over a 24-hour period. Time Oxygen (ppm) pH 2 a.m. 4.5 7.7 4 a.m. 2.8 7.2 6 a.m. 2.2 6.8 8 a.m. 2.5 6.8 10 a.m. 3.9 7.2 Noon 6.5 7.7 2 p.m. 10.0 8.3 4 p.m. 12.1 8.8 6 p.m. 13.1 9.2 8 p.m. 13.0 9.2 10 p.m. 12.0 8.8 Midnight 10.8 8.3 You are investigating a massive fish kill in one of the shallow lakes in the area. Lab reports show no toxins in the water, but a monitoring station reported these oxygen and pH values. Based on the table above, what, if any, is the relationship between oxygen and pH? Inverse relationship: when one increases, the other decreases b. Exponential relationship: when one increases, the other increases 10 to 100 times c. Direct relationship: when one increases, the other also increases d. No relationship: there is no pattern between oxygen and pH

ANSWER

c. Direct relationship: when one increases, the other also increases

QUESTION 8

Which processes can be carried out by consumers? a. Only cellular respiration Neither photosynthesis nor cellular respiration Only photosynthesis Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration

ANSWER

a. Only cellular respiration

QUESTION 9

Which stage of cellular respiration requires oxygen that you breathe? a. All of the above b. Glycolysis c. Citric acid cycle d. Electron transport chain

ANSWER

d. Electron transport chain

QUESTION 10

The purpose of the Calvin cycle is to produce ________. a.. ATP b. Sugar c. O2 d. CO2

ANSWER

b. Sugar

QUESTION 11

Why do some leaves change color (red, yellow, orange, etc.) in the fall? When leaves die, the chlorophyll molecules are no longer visible. b. The chlorophyll molecule breaks down and other pigments now become visible. c. The chlorophyll molecule is modified to absorb different wavelengths of light. d. Cold weather denatures the chlorophyll molecule, and it begins to reflect different colors.

ANSWER

b. The chlorophyll molecule breaks down and other pigments now become visible

QUESTION 12

Can energy be harvested by the cells from glucose without oxygen? Yes, but not quite as much as with oxygen. No, oxygen is required to harvest any energy from glucose. c. Yes, but much less than with oxygen. Yes, about as much as with oxygen.

ANSWER

c. Yes, but much less than with oxygen.

QUESTION 13

Where do the molecules used as the inputs of the Calvin cycles (ATP and NADPH) come from? They come from the sun. They come from previous Calvin cycles. c. They come from the light reactions. They come from the air.

ANSWER

c. They come from the light reactions.

QUESTION 14

Identify the stage (or stages) of cellular respiration that occurs entirely outside of the mitochondria. Glycolysis Electron transport chain All of the above Citric acid cycle

ANSWER

Glycolysis

QUESTION 15

Where does cellular respiration occur? In the mitochondria In the airways of the respiratory system In the nucleus In the chloroplasts

ANSWER

a. In the mitochondria

QUESTION 16

Name the fluid-filled interior of the chloroplast. Stroma Grana None of these Thylakoids

ANSWER

a. Stroma

QUESTION 17

What is the definition of energy? The movement of an object b. The capacity to do work c. Particles moving in waves through a system d. The amount of order in a system

ANSWER

b. The capacity to do work

QUESTION 18

Organize the following steps of the light reaction in order. a. Absorb sunlight, split water to release electron, produce oxygen as a by-product, capture energy in ATP and NADPH b. Absorb sunlight, capture energy in ATP and NADPH, produce oxygen as a by-product, split water to release electron c. Absorb sunlight, capture energy in ATP and NADPH, split water to release electron, produce oxygen as a by-product d. Absorb sunlight, produce oxygen as a by-product, split water to release electron, capture energy in ATP and NADPH

ANSWER

a. Absorb sunlight, split water to release electron, produce oxygen as a by-product, capture energy in ATP and NADPH

QUESTION 19

Which of the following can carry out photosynthesis? Bacteria b. All of the above can carry out photosynthesis Seaweeds Plants

ANSWER

b. All of the above can carry out photosynthesis

QUESTION 20

Which stage of photosynthesis, if any, can function in the dark? Stage 2 (the Calvin cycle) Both Stage 1 and Stage 2 Neither Stage 1 nor Stage 2 Stage 1 (the light reactions)

ANSWER

a. Stage 2 (the Calvin cycle)

QUESTION 21

What is the role of mitochondria in plants? Produce sugars Carry out photosynthesis c. Produce ATP None, as plants do not have mitochondria

ANSWER

c. Produce ATP

QUESTION 22

Identify the role of water in photosynthesis. It is the final electron acceptor. It is split to form sugar. It is a waste product in the light reactions. d. It is the initial electron releaser when split.

ANSWER

d. It is the initial electron releaser when split.

QUESTION 23

Identify the principal role of photosynthesis. To convert solar energy into the chemical energy of sugars To convert the chemical energy of sugars into heat to maintain an elevated body temperature To convert kinetic energy into the chemical energy of sugars To convert the chemical energy of sugars into the chemical energy that fuels life's processes

ANSWER

To convert solar energy into the chemical energy of sugars

QUESTION 24

How do we know green light is not absorbed by chlorophyll? a. Green light does not have enough energy to excite an electron in the photosystem. b. Green light is the wavelength of light that is reflected instead of absorbed by the chloroplasts. c.Not enough of the green light penetrates the ozone layer and makes it to the plant. d. Green light has such a small wavelength that most of it goes straight through the leaves without interacting with the chlorophyll.

ANSWER

b. Green light is the wavelength of light that is reflected instead of absorbed by the chloroplasts.

QUESTION 25

Identify the principal role of cellular respiration. a. To convert the chemical energy of sugars into the chemical energy that fuels life's processes b. To convert solar energy into the chemical energy of sugars c. To convert kinetic energy into the chemical energy of sugars d. To convert the chemical energy of sugars into heat to maintain an elevated body temperature

ANSWER

a. To convert the chemical energy of sugars into the chemical energy that fuels life's processes

QUESTION 26

Predict how many molecules of carbon dioxide are produced from the mitochondrial "burning" of one molecule of glucose? a. 12 b. Not enough information provided c. 1 d. 6

ANSWER

d. 6

QUESTION 27

What leads to an individual having too many or two few chromosomes? a.. Crossing over b. Idependent assortment c. Nondisjunction

ANSWER

d. Homologous recombination

QUESTION 28

A test cross is performed to determine if a specific individual is a carrier. The results generate a 50/50 ratio of phenotypes. The test subject is therefore ________. a. heterozygous b. homozygous dominant c. homozygous recessive d. heterozygous dominant

ANSWER

a. heterozygous

QUESTION 29

What is different between two alleles of the same gene? The cell they are in. For example, one might be in a liver cell, while the other is in a blood cell. b. The information they carry. For example, one allele might carry the information for blue eye pigment, while the other carries the information for brown eye pigment. Their location. For example, one allele might be at the end of one chromosome, while the other allele is in the middle of another chromosome. The chromosome number they are on. For example, one allele might be on chromosome 12, while the other one is on chromosome 3.

ANSWER

b. The information they carry. For example, one allele might carry the information for blue eye pigment, while the other carries the information for brown eye pigment.

QUESTION 30

When does crossing over occur? Meiosis II Mitosis Meiosis I Cytokinesis

ANSWER

Meiosis I

QUESTION 31

What produces four daughter cells? Mitosis Meiosis Both of these Neither of these

ANSWER

Meiosis

QUESTION 32

A homozygous milk chocolate Easter bunny is crossed with a homozygous dark chocolate Easter bunny. Assuming dark chocolate is dominant over milk chocolate and the traits segregate according to Mendelian genetics, which traits will the offspring express? All milk 3 milk to 1 dark All dark 3 dark to 1 milk

ANSWER

All dark

QUESTION 33

How many chromosomes would be found in the karyotype of a Down syndrome female? 46 45 47 44

ANSWER

47

QUESTION 34

If a human diploid cell and a human haploid cell somehow managed to fuse together and not lose any of the chromosomes, how many sets of chromosomes would be inside the newly formed cell? 1.5 3 2.5 2

ANSWER

3

QUESTION 35

Assuming incomplete dominance, if a homozygous red-flowered plant is crossed with a homozygous white-flowered plant, what will be the color of the offspring? Red and white Pink Red White

ANSWER

Pink

QUESTION 36

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events during mitosis? Chromosomes split, nuclear membrane dissolves, nuclear membrane forms, chromosomes line up Nuclear membrane dissolves, chromosomes line up, chromosomes split, nuclear membrane forms Chromosomes line up, nuclear membrane forms, nuclear membrane dissolves, chromosomes split Nuclear membrane forms, chromosomes line up, chromosomes split, nuclear membrane dissolves

ANSWER

Nuclear membrane dissolves, chromosomes line up, chromosomes split, nuclear membrane forms

QUESTION 37

What is cytokinesis? The stage of the cell cycle thats happens before the cell is ready to divide its DNA The stage of the cell cycle during which the cell duplicates its DNA The stage of the cell cycle after the cell has divided its DNA and during which the cytoplasm gets divided The stage of the cell cycle during which the cell separates its duplicated DNA

ANSWER

The stage of the cell cycle after the cell has divided its DNA and during which the cytoplasm gets divided

QUESTION 38

Name the part of the chromosome indicated by the arrow. Mitotic spindle Centromere Gene Sister chromatid

ANSWER

Centromere

QUESTION 39

Assuming complete dominance, what is the expected ratio of phenotypes of the offspring following the cross of a homozygous recessive and a heterzygote? 4:1 1:2:1 3:1 1:1

ANSWER

3:1

QUESTION 40

What specifically separates during meiosis II? Sister chromatids The cytoplasm Homologous chromosomes The genome

ANSWER

Sister chromatids

QUESTION 41

Albinism is a recessive disorder in which the skin and hair fail to produce pigment. The followingquestion(s) ask you to evaluate the pedigree chart shown here in which "N" is the allele for normal pigmentation and "n" is the allele for albinism. The shaded circles for Deirdre and Shannon represent the only individuals expressing the disorder. What is Dawn's genotype? NN Nn c. NN or Nn nn

ANSWER

c. NN or Nn

QUESTION 42

When one cell goes through cell division, it produces ________. four identical cells two identical cells four different cells two different cells

ANSWER

two identical cells

QUESTION 43

Is an individual with the XXY combination of chromosomes anatomically male or female? Female Male

ANSWER

Male

QUESTION 44

What is a karyotype? A list of all the genes on our chromosomes A picture of all the chromosomes in one person's cell A list of all the mutations in our chromosomes A complete sequence of our DNA

ANSWER

A picture of all the chromosomes in one person's cell

QUESTION 45

DNA plus its associated proteins is called a ________. chromatin centromere genome gene

ANSWER

chromatin

QUESTION 46

How much of your DNA is identical to that of another person of the same sex? 78% 90% 99.5% 99.9%

ANSWER

99.5%

QUESTION 47

During which phase of the cell cycle are the chromosomes duplicated? Mitosis Meiosis Interphase Cytokinesis

ANSWER

Interphase

QUESTION 48

Genes are located on ________. the centromere mitosis chromosomes the cytoplasm

ANSWER

chromosomes

QUESTION 49

Dead or damaged cells are replaced by the process of ________. mitosis fertilization meiosis binary fission

ANSWER

mitosis

QUESTION 50

Would a human clone have a bellybutton? No Yes

ANSWER

Yes

QUESTION 51

Recessive disorders related to genes found on the X chromosome but not on the Y are more commonly expressed in ________. males adults children females

ANSWER

males

QUESTION 52

When I say a flower is "purple," what have I described? Its genotype Its haplotype Its karyotype d. Its phenotype

ANSWER

d. Its phenotype

QUESTION 53

Which process requires DNA to undergo duplication before it can proceed? Both of these Neither of these Meiosis Mitosis

ANSWER

Both of theses

QUESTION 54

What is the role of primers in the PCR techniques? To target specific areas of DNA To allow single strands of DNA to bind together To separate strands of double-stranded DNA To add free nucleotides to the newly formed DNA molecule

ANSWER

To target specific areas of DNA

QUESTION 55

Is most of our DNA made up of genes? Yes, the vast majority of human DNA consists of genes. No, genes make up only 1.5% of our DNA.

ANSWER

No, genes make up only 1.5% of our DNA.

QUESTION 56

What does it mean when we say a gene is "turned off"? The gene is no longer working properly. The gene has a mutation. The gene cannot be transcribed and translated into a protein. The gene is now activated.

ANSWER

The gene cannot be transcribed and translated into a protein.

QUESTION 57

Which genes are responsible for your overall structure, such as how many legs you have and where they develop? Oncogenes Homeotic genes Growth factor genes Proto-oncogenes

ANSWER

Homeotic genes

QUESTION 58

What is the main cause of cancer? Old age, during which the cells of the body no longer work properly Exposure to carcinogens in the environment DNA replication no longer working properly We do not currently know the main cause of cancer.

ANSWER

Exposure to carcinogens in the environment

QUESTION 59

Cancer is ________. cells with proto-oncogene activated what happens when cells get old any tumor in the body uncontrolled cell growth

ANSWER

uncontrolled cell growth

QUESTION 60

What is the main function of DNA helicase in DNA replication? Fusing DNA fragments together Proofreading the DNA molecule Unzipping the DNA double helix Adding complementary DNA bases to the newly forming DNA strand

ANSWER

Unzipping the DNA double helix

QUESTION 61

Which of the following is not a modification to the mRNA? End capping Exon splicing Intron removal Promoter binding

ANSWER

Promoter binding

QUESTION 62

DNA profiling relies on an individual's ________, no two of which are the same between different people, except identical twins. unique fingerprints unique set of genes unique mRNA sequences unique set of short tandem repeats within DNA

ANSWER

unique set of short tandem repeats within DNA

QUESTION 63

What is the monomer of the DNA molecule? Nucleotide Monosaccharide Peptide Polynucleotide

ANSWER

Nucleotide

QUESTION 64

A cloned mammal is made by removing the DNA from the unfertilized egg of an egg donor, replacing it with DNA from a cell of a mature animal, and then implanting that cell into the uterus of a surrogate mother. The cell then divides and behaves as if it were a regular embryo. Answer the following questions(s) regarding a clone. Of whom is the baby a clone? Egg donor Surrogate mother DNA donor It depends on whether it is male or female.

ANSWER

DNA donor

QUESTION 65

What is a "benign" tumor? A mass of cancerous cells b. A mass of cells that grows out of control but remains at the site of origin A single mutated cell that could potentially develop into cancer A mass of cells that grows out of control and spreads to other tissues

ANSWER

b. A mass of cells that grows out of control but remains at the site of origin

QUESTION 66

What type of mutation leads to a frameshift in the reading of DNA? All point mutations b. Both insertions and deletions Deletions only Insertions only

ANSWER

b. Both insertions and deletions

QUESTION 67

The genetic code is ________. our genome b. what allows codons to be translated into amino acids the complementary base-pairing of A going with T and C going with G our DNA - what makes us who we are

ANSWER

b. what allows codons to be translated into amino acids

QUESTION 68

The type of mutation that alters the nucleotide sequence of a gene but does not alter the amino acid sequence of the protein produced from that gene is called ________ mutation. frameshift nonsense c. silent missense

ANSWER

c. silent

QUESTION 69

Gene cloning is used to ________. make other organisms, such as Dolly, the first cloned sheep help cure cancer cure genetic disorders d. produce large quantities of human proteins

ANSWER

d. produce large quantities of human proteins

QUESTION 70

The signal transduction pathway allows ________. a cell to repair damage to its DNA b .one cell to regulate the gene expression of another cell whole genomes to be sequenced genes from one organism to be inserted into the nucleus of another organism's cells

ANSWER

b. one cell to regulate the gene expression of another cell

QUESTION 71

If the base sequence of template strand reads GCCATTAC, what is the base sequence of the mRNA? GCCAUUAC b. CGGUAAUG CGGTUUTG CGGTAATG

ANSWER

b. CGGUAAUG

QUESTION 72

When is cell-to-cell communication particularly important in regulating gene expression? During replication b. During embryonic development During meiosis During mitosis

ANSWER

b. During embryonic development

QUESTION 73

The PCR technique doubles the amount of DNA in a sample in each cycle. If you started the PCR technique with two fragments of double-stranded DNA, calculate how many double-stranded DNA fragments you would you have after four cycles. a. 32 8 64 16

ANSWER

a. 32

QUESTION 74

Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments according to their ________. base sequences polarity charge d. length

ANSWER

d. length

QUESTION 75

When might a frameshift or nonsense mutation not result in a completely defective protein? When the mutation occurs in one of the first codons When a frameshift is balanced out by a nonsense mutation When the mutation occurs in an exon region d. When the mutation occurs in one of the very last codons

ANSWER

d. When the mutation occurs in one of the very last codons

QUESTION 76

Why does transcription occur in the nucleus and not in the cytoplasm in eukaryotes? Codons are only found in the nucleus. RNA cannot exist in the cytoplasm. Ribosomes cannot leave the nucleus. d. DNA cannot leave the nucleus.

ANSWER

d. DNA cannot leave the nucleus.

QUESTION 77

How does a cell typically know when to divide? Cells have an internal clock and divide only when they reach a certain age. Tumor suppressor genes code for growth factor proteins that initiate cell division. Oncogenes code for growth factor proteins that initiate cell division. d. Proto-oncogenes code for growth factor proteins that initiate cell division.

ANSWER

d. Proto-oncogenes code for growth factor proteins that initiate cell division.

QUESTION 78

How is translation initiated? Two ribosomal subunits bind to the DNA sequence. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter sequence. c. Two ribosomal subunits bind to the mRNA transcript. DNA helicase binds to the origins of replication.

ANSWER

c. Two ribosomal subunits bind to the mRNA transcript.

QUESTION 79

What are carcinogens? All mutagens Chemical factors that can treat cancer c. Physical or chemical factors that can lead to mutations causing cancer d. Errors during DNA replication

ANSWER

c. Physical or chemical factors that can lead to mutations causing cancer

QUESTION 80

What is recombinant DNA? DNA that comes from plasmids DNA that is circular DNA that can no longer replicate d. A segment of DNA containing sequences from two different sources

ANSWER

d. A segment of DNA containing sequencesn from two different sources

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