IT CertificationsComprehensive Study Set

Gibson Security Plus

104 questions across 0 topics. Use the find bar or section chips to jump to what you need.

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QUESTION 1

CIA

ANSWER

Confidentiality, integrity, availability

QUESTION 2

What is a use case?

ANSWER

Describes a goal that an organization wants to achieve. Engineers use it in systems analysis and software development to identify and clarify requirements to achieve the goal.

QUESTION 3

Agile

ANSWER

A software development life cycle model that focuses on interaction between customers, developers, and testers. Compare with waterfall.

QUESTION 4

Confidentiality

ANSWER

Ensures that unauthorized entities cannot access data. Encryption and access controls help protect against the loss of it.

QUESTION 5

Encryption

ANSWER

A process that scrambles, or ciphers, data to make it unreadable. Normally includes a public algorithm and a private key. Compare with asymmetric and symmetric encryption.

QUESTION 6

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

ANSWER

A strong symmetric block cipher that encrypts data in 128-bit blocks. Can use key sizes of 128 bits, 192 bits, or 256 bits.

QUESTION 7

Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

ANSWER

Information about individuals that can be used to trace a person's identity, such as a full name, birth date, biometric data, and more.

QUESTION 8

Access Controls

ANSWER

It is designed to protect systems from unauthorized access in order to preserve data integrity

QUESTION 9

Identification

ANSWER

The process in which a user claims an identity, by providing such information as a username.

QUESTION 10

Authentication

ANSWER

Process that occurs when a user proves an identity, such as with a password.

QUESTION 11

Authorization

ANSWER

The process of granting access to resources for users who's prove their identity (such as with a username and password). Based on identity

QUESTION 12

Steganography

ANSWER

The practice of hiding data within data. For example, it's possible to embed text files within an image, hiding them from casual users. It is one way to obscure data to hide it.

QUESTION 13

Obfuscation

ANSWER

An attempt to make something unclear or difficult to understand. It hides data within data.

QUESTION 14

Integrity

ANSWER

One of the three main goals of information security known as the CIA security triad. It provides assurance that data or system configurations have not been modified. Audit logs and hashing are two methods used to ensure it's preserved. Compare with availability and confidentiality.

QUESTION 15

Hash

ANSWER

A number created by executing a type of algorithm against data, such as a file or message. It's commonly used to preserve integrity. Common algorithms of this type; are MD5, SHA-1, and HMAC.

QUESTION 16

Message Digest 5 (MD5)

ANSWER

A hashing function/ algorithm used to provide integrity. It creates 128-bit hashes, which are also referred to a type of checksums. Experts consider it cracked.

QUESTION 17

Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA)

ANSWER

A hashing function/ algorithm used to provide integrity. There are several versions include

QUESTION 18

Hash-based Message Authentication Code (HMAC)

ANSWER

A hashing algorithm/ function used to verify integrity and authenticity of a message with the use of a shared secret. It is typically combined with another hashing algorithm such as SHA.

QUESTION 19

Message Authentication Code (MAC)

ANSWER

It provides integrity similar to how a hash is used.

QUESTION 20

Media Access Control (MAC)

ANSWER

A 48-bit address used to identify network interface cards. It is also called a hardware address or a physical address.

QUESTION 21

Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

ANSWER

An access control model that uses sensitivity labels assigned to objects (files and folders) and subjects (users). It restricts access based on a need to know.

QUESTION 22

Digital Signature

ANSWER

An encrypted hash of a message, encrypted with the sender's private key. It provides authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity.

QUESTION 23

Digital Certificate

ANSWER

It is a data file that identifies individuals or organizations online and is comparable to a digital signature

QUESTION 24

Non-repudiation

ANSWER

The ability to prevent a party from denying an action. Digital signatures and access logs provide non-repudiation.

QUESTION 25

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

ANSWER

A group of technologies used to request, create, manage, store, distribute, and revoke digital certificates.

QUESTION 26

Availability

ANSWER

One of the three main goals of information security known as the CIA security triad. Ensures that systems and data are up and operational when needed. Compare with confidentiality and integrity.

QUESTION 27

Redundancy

ANSWER

The process of adding duplication to critical system components and networks to provide fault tolerance.

QUESTION 28

Fault tolerance

ANSWER

The capability of a system to suffer a fault, but continue to operate. Said another way, the system can tolerate a system failure as if it never occurred.

QUESTION 29

Single point of failure (SPOF)

ANSWER

A component within a system that can cause the entire system to fail if this component fails.

QUESTION 30

Disk Redundancies

ANSWER

Fault-tolerant disks, such as RAID-1 (mirroring), RAID-5 (striping with parity), and RAID-10 (striping with a mirror), allow a system to continue to operate even if a disk fails.

QUESTION 31

Server Redundancies

ANSWER

Failover clusters include redundant servers and ensure a service will continue to operate, even if a server fails. In a failover cluster, the service switches from the failed server in a cluster to an operational server in the same cluster.

QUESTION 32

Load Balancing

ANSWER

The process of distributing data transfer activity evenly so that no single device is overwhelmed.

QUESTION 33

Site Redundancies

ANSWER

If a site can no longer function due to a disaster, such as a fire, flood, hurricane, or earthquake, the organization can move critical systems to an alternate site. The alternate site can be a hot site (ready and available 24/7), a cold site (a location where equipment, data, and personnel can be moved to when needed), or a warm site (a compromise between a hot site and cold site).

QUESTION 34

Backups

ANSWER

If personnel back up important data, they can restore it if the original data is lost. Data can be lost due to corruption, deletion, application errors, human error, and even hungry gremlins that just randomly decide to eat your data.

QUESTION 35

Alternate Power

ANSWER

Uninterruptible power supplies (UPSs) and power generators can provide power to key systems even if commercial power fails.

QUESTION 36

uninterruptible power supply (UPS)

ANSWER

an alternative power supply device that protects against the loss of power and fluctuations in the power level by using battery power to enable the system to operate long enough to back up critical data and safely shut down

QUESTION 37

Cooling systems

ANSWER

Heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems improve the availability of systems by reducing outages from overheating.

QUESTION 38

heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC)

ANSWER

Heating, ventilation, and air conditioning. A physical security control that increases availability by regulating airflow within data centers and server rooms.

QUESTION 39

Patch management

ANSWER

The process used to keep systems up to date with current patches. It typically includes evaluating and testing patches before deploying them.

QUESTION 40

Risk

ANSWER

The possibility or likelihood of a threat exploiting a vulnerability resulting in a loss. Compare with threat and vulnerability.

QUESTION 41

Threat

ANSWER

Any circumstance or event that has the potential to compromise confidentiality, integrity, or availability. Compare with risk and vulnerability.

QUESTION 42

Vulnerability

ANSWER

A weakness. It can be a weakness in the hardware, the software, the configuration, or even the users operating the system.

QUESTION 43

Security incident

ANSWER

An adverse event or series of events that can negatively affect the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of an organization's information technology (IT) systems and data.

QUESTION 44

Risk Mitigation

ANSWER

The process of reducing risk by implementing controls. Security controls reduce risk by reducing vulnerabilities associated with a risk, or by reducing the impact of a threat.

QUESTION 45

Technical controls

ANSWER

Security controls implemented through technology.

QUESTION 46

Antivirus software

ANSWER

Software that protects systems from malware. It protects against most malware, including viruses, Trojans, worms, and more.

QUESTION 47

Intrusion detection systems (IDSs)/ Intrusion prevention systems (IPSs).

ANSWER

They monitor a network or host for intrusions and provide ongoing protection against various threats.

QUESTION 48

Firewall

ANSWER

A software or a network device used to filter traffic. Firewalls can be application-based (running on a host), or network-based. Stateless firewalls filter traffic using rules within an ACL. Stateful firewalls filter traffic based on its state within a session.

QUESTION 49

Least Privilege

ANSWER

A security principle that specifies that individuals and processes are granted only the rights and permissions needed to perform assigned tasks or functions, but no more.

QUESTION 50

Administrative controls

ANSWER

Security controls implemented via administrative or management methods.

QUESTION 51

Risk assessment

ANSWER

A process used to identify and prioritize risks. It includes quantitative risk assessments and qualitative risk assessments.

QUESTION 52

Vulnerability assessment

ANSWER

It attempts to discover current vulnerabilities or weaknesses.

QUESTION 53

Penetration testing

ANSWER

A method of testing targeted systems to determine if vulnerabilities can be exploited. These are intrusive tests.

QUESTION 54

Awareness and training

ANSWER

It's importance in reducing risks cannot be overstated. It helps users maintain password security, follow a clean desk policy, understand threats such as phishing and malware, and much more.

QUESTION 55

Configuration

ANSWER

It uses baselines to ensure that systems start in a secure, hardened state.

QUESTION 56

Contingency planning

ANSWER

The goal is to reduce the overall impact on the organization if an outage occurs.

QUESTION 57

Media protection

ANSWER

Physical media such as USB flash drives, external and internal drives, and backup tapes.

QUESTION 58

Physical and environmental protection.

ANSWER

This includes physical controls, such as cameras and door locks, and environmental controls, such as heating and ventilation systems.

QUESTION 59

Physical controls

ANSWER

Security controls that you can physically touch.

QUESTION 60

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)

ANSWER

is a part of the U.S. Department of Commerce, and it includes a Computer Security Division hosting the Information Technology Laboratory (ITL). The ITL publishes Special Publications (SPs) in the 800 series that are of general interest to the computer security community. Many IT security professionals use these documents as references to design secure IT systems and networks.

QUESTION 61

Preventative controls

ANSWER

Security controls that attempt to prevent a security incident from occurring.

QUESTION 62

Hardening

ANSWER

It is the practice of making a system or application more secure than its default configuration. This uses a defense-in-depth strategy with layered security.

QUESTION 63

Security awareness and training

ANSWER

Ensuring that users are aware of security vulnerabilities and threats helps prevent incidents. When users understand how social engineers operate, they are less likely to be tricked.

QUESTION 64

Security guards

ANSWER

Guards prevent and deter many attacks. For example, guards can prevent unauthorized access into secure areas of a building by first verifying user identities.

QUESTION 65

Account Disablement Policy

ANSWER

Policy ensures that user accounts are disabled when an employee leaves. This prevents anyone, including ex-employees, from continuing to use these accounts.

QUESTION 66

Detective controls

ANSWER

Security controls that attempt to detect security incidents after they have occurred.

QUESTION 67

Log Monitoring

ANSWER

records details of activity on systems and networks

QUESTION 68

Trend Analysis

ANSWER

Monitoring of logs to detect trends.

QUESTION 69

Security audit

ANSWER

examines the security posture of an organization. Gibson, Darril. CompTIA Security+ Get Certified Get Ahead: SY0-501 Study Guide (p. 73). Kindle Edition.

QUESTION 70

Video surveillance

ANSWER

A closed-circuit television (CCTV) system can record activity and detect what occurred.

QUESTION 71

Motion detection

ANSWER

Many alarm systems can detect motion from potential intruders and raise alarms.

QUESTION 72

System recovery

ANSWER

Procedures that ensure administrators can recover a system after a failure.

QUESTION 73

Cable locks

ANSWER

Used to secure portable computers, external hard drives, and other portable pieces of hardware to a table or other object.

QUESTION 74

Hardware locks

ANSWER

Other locks such as locked doors securing a wiring closet or a server room also deter attacks.

QUESTION 75

Virtualization

ANSWER

A technology that allows you to host multiple virtual machines on a single physical system. Different types include Type I, Type II, and application cell/container virtualization.

QUESTION 76

Hypervisor

ANSWER

The software that creates, runs, and manages the VMs. Several virtualization technologies currently exist, including VMware products, Microsoft Hyper-V products, and Oracle VM VirtualBox.

QUESTION 77

Host

ANSWER

The physical system hosting the VMs. It requires more resources than a typical system, such as multiple processors, massive amounts of RAM, fast and abundant hard drive space, and one or more fast network cards.

QUESTION 78

Guest or Guest Machines

ANSWER

Operating systems running on the host system

QUESTION 79

Host elasticity and scalability.

ANSWER

Refers to the ability to resize computing capacity based on the load.

QUESTION 80

Type I hypervisors

ANSWER

Hypervisor that runs directly on the system hardware. They are often called bare-metal hypervisors because they don't need to run within an operating system.

QUESTION 81

Type II hypervisors

ANSWER

Hypervisor that runs as software within a host operating system. For example, the Microsoft Hyper-V hypervisor runs within a Microsoft operating system.

QUESTION 82

Application cell

ANSWER

AKA application containers. A virtualization technology that runs services or applications within isolated containers. Each container shares the kernel of the host.

QUESTION 83

Change Management

ANSWER

The process used to prevent unauthorized changes. Unauthorized changes often result in unintended outages.

QUESTION 84

Deterrent controls

ANSWER

Security controls that attempt to discourage individuals from causing a security incident.

QUESTION 85

Compensating controls

ANSWER

Security controls that are alternative controls used when a primary security control is not feasible.

QUESTION 86

Corrective controls

ANSWER

Security controls that attempt to reverse the impact of a security incident.

QUESTION 87

Snapshot

ANSWER

A copy of a virtual machine (VM) at a moment in time. If you later have problems with the VM, you can revert it to the state it was in when you took the snapshot. Some backup programs also use it to create a copy of data at a moment in time.

QUESTION 88

Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)/ Virtual desktop environment (VDE)

ANSWER

Users access a server hosting virtual desktops and run the desktop operating system from the server.

QUESTION 89

Non-persistance

ANSWER

A method used in virtual desktops where changes made by a user are not saved. Most (or all) users have the same desktop. When users log off, the desktop reverts to its original state.

QUESTION 90

Virtual machine (VM)

ANSWER

Software that simulates the hardware of a physical computer, creating one or more logical machines within one physical machine.

QUESTION 91

VM escape

ANSWER

An attack that allows an attacker to access the host system from within a virtual machine. The primary protection is to keep hosts and guests up to date with current patches.

QUESTION 92

VM sprawl

ANSWER

A vulnerability that occurs when an organization has many VMs that aren't properly managed. Unmanaged VMs are not kept up to date with current patches. Compare with system sprawl.

QUESTION 93

Ping

ANSWER

A command-line tool used to test connectivity with remote systems.

QUESTION 94

ipconfig(Microsoft)/ifconfig (Linux)

ANSWER

A command-line tool and a command-line command used on Linux systems or on Window systems to show and manipulate settings on a network interface card (NIC).

QUESTION 95

Netstat

ANSWER

A command-line tool used to show network statistics on a system.

QUESTION 96

ESTABLISHED

ANSWER

This is the normal state for the data transfer phase of a connection. It indicates an active open connection

QUESTION 97

Listen

ANSWER

System action that indicates the system is waiting for a connection request. The well-known port a system is conducting this action on indicates the protocol

QUESTION 98

Close_Wait

ANSWER

This indicates the system is waiting for a connection termination request. •

QUESTION 99

Time_Wait

ANSWER

This indicates the system is waiting for enough time to pass to be sure the remote system received a TCP-based acknowledgment of the connection.

QUESTION 100

SYN_SENT.

ANSWER

This indicates the system sent a TCP SYN (synchronize) packet as the first part of the SYN,

QUESTION 101

SYN_RECEIVED.

ANSWER

This indicates the system sent a TCP SYN-ACK packet after receiving a SYN packet as the first part of the SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK handshake

QUESTION 102

Tracert/traceroute

ANSWER

A command-line tool used to trace the route between two systems.

QUESTION 103

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

ANSWER

A command-line tool used to show and manipulate the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache.

QUESTION 104

Netcat

ANSWER

A command-line tool used to connect to remote systems.

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