IT CertificationsComprehensive Study Set

Comptia Itf Study Guide

197 questions across 0 topics. Use the find bar or section chips to jump to what you need.

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QUESTION 1

True or false? All types of computers use CPU and system memory.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 2

What type of computer is most likely to need peripheral devices?

ANSWER

Desktop computer—you could also call this a Personal Computer (PC) or a workstation. An All-in-one PC also uses peripheral devices, with the obvious exception of a monitor.

QUESTION 3

What type of computer is best suited for using in a job where you have to make notes and be able to move around easily?

ANSWER

A tablet or smartphone or possibly a hybrid laptop/tablet. Notetaking is supported by a touchscreen-based device.

QUESTION 4

Why don't laptops make good servers?

ANSWER

There is no room for expansion and you are paying for components and design (maximum portability) you do not need.

QUESTION 5

Why isn't a smartphone a good tool for writing a report?

ANSWER

Touchscreen or mini keyboards are not optimized for writing lots of text, though it is possible to attach them as peripheral devices

QUESTION 6

What type(s) of IoT appliance are less likely to be controlled via a home automation hub?

ANSWER

Modern cars and medical devices are unlikely to interface via a hub. Home automation hubs link to kitchen and domestic appliances, streaming media players, and potentially security systems.

QUESTION 7

What should you do before attempting to set up a new computer system?

ANSWER

Verify that the environment is suitable and that the installation will be safe.

QUESTION 8

When setting up a desktop computer, what factor should you consider when deciding on the location of the system case?

ANSWER

You do not want to leave trailing wires over walkways so you need to consider the position of power outlet(s) and where peripheral devices will be placed. You also want to ensure adequate air flow around the system unit.

QUESTION 9

What factors should you consider when positioning input and output devices?

ANSWER

Ensure that they can be used without exerting strain, especially on the arms/wrists and back/neck. Ensure that cabling is not a trip hazard. Avoid locations that cause excessive screen glare.

QUESTION 10

You have to sign in to Windows—does it matter if the CAPS LOCK light on the keyboard is activated?

ANSWER

Yes—passwords are case-sensitive

QUESTION 11

You have to open a word processing application but you cannot see an icon on the desktop. What should you do?

ANSWER

Look for the shortcut in Start Menu or Start Screen—not all programs add shortcuts on the Desktop.

QUESTION 12

Your colleague has to run many applications at the same time and finds it difficult to know which icon to choose when switching between them. What alternative method could you suggest?

ANSWER

Press Alt+Tab—this shows previews of the window. Windows can also show previews of the window contents when pointing at the taskbar icon.

QUESTION 13

Your colleague is using a laptop and you notice that he laboriously clicks the mouse repeatedly to scroll through the document you are co-editing. What technique could he use to be more productive?

ANSWER

Use the mouse scroll wheel (or if it doesn't have one drag the scroll button in the scroll bar).

QUESTION 14

What function of an operating system is performed by the "shell?"

ANSWER

Interface between the user and the computer

QUESTION 15

What type of file in an OS is the main means of providing coordination of hardware components?

ANSWER

A driver (or device driver).

QUESTION 16

What is an example of an open source operating system?

ANSWER

Linux, Chromium, or Android.

QUESTION 17

What type of computing device(s) is macOS designed for installation on?

ANSWER

Desktop computers/workstations and laptops.

QUESTION 18

True or false? Windows 10 is the first 64-bit edition of Windows.

ANSWER

False—Windows 10 is better described as a version than edition and there have been 64-bit editions of Windows versions since Windows XP.

QUESTION 19

You have to open a file located on a network server. What should be your first step?

ANSWER

Open the Network object from Explorer and locate the server (computer) hosting the file.

QUESTION 20

What is the technical term for a web address?

ANSWER

Uniform Resource Locator (URL). In fact, Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) is now preferred in web standards documentation but URL is more widely known and used.

QUESTION 21

What key combination can you use to force the browser to ignore any locally cached files when refreshing a page?

ANSWER

Ctrl+F5.

QUESTION 22

What is the registry and how does it distinguish Windows and Linux?

ANSWER

The registry is a database of configuration settings supporting the Windows OS. Linux uses individual text files to store settings.

QUESTION 23

What term is used to describe terminating a process that is not responding to user input?

ANSWER

This is often called "killing" the process.

QUESTION 24

Why might you use the Services snap-in to manage background processes rather than Task Manager?

ANSWER

Task Manager allows you to start and stop services but the Services snap-in also allows you to configure service properties.

QUESTION 25

The Task Scheduler allows you to run a process automatically in Windows. What is a widely-used Linux equivalent?

ANSWER

cron is widely used to run tasks automatically in Linux.

QUESTION 26

What part of the system memory setup is most user-configurable?

ANSWER

Use of virtual memory or a pagefile, where disk space is used to supplement system RAM.

QUESTION 27

What two things are configured on a disk to make storage space on the disk available to the Windows OS?

ANSWER

The disk must contain at least one partition, typically allocated a drive letter, and the partition must be formatted with a suitable file system.

QUESTION 28

What is a CLI?

ANSWER

A Command Line Interface allows the user to interact with the OS using typed commands or scripts rather than a GUI.

QUESTION 29

What protection feature in Windows is designed to prevent a script or software from making unauthorized changes to the OS configuration?

ANSWER

User Access Control (UAC). UAC means that the user must input their credentials or click through an authorization prompt before the configuration change can be made

QUESTION 30

True or false? A standard user cannot change their own password.

ANSWER

a) False—ordinary users can change their own password but cannot change anyone else's.

QUESTION 31

You are advising a colleague about best practices when troubleshooting. You have identified the following techniques to use to identify a problem: gather information, duplicate the problem, question users, identify symptoms, and approach multiple problems individually. If you are following CompTIA's troubleshooting model, what other piece of advice should you give?

ANSWER

Determine if anything has changed—this is one of the most useful troubleshooting techniques.

QUESTION 32

You have asked a senior manager to authorize your plan of action for resolving a fault in a software application. What name is given to the process you are following?

ANSWER

This is escalating the problem. You might escalate a problem to more experienced staff or seek help with a solution plan that is beyond your authority to put into action.

QUESTION 33

You are setting up a new computer, but it doesn't seem to be working. Should you check anything or contact the manufacturer?

ANSWER

It would be best to double-check you have connected the cables correctly (especially power).

QUESTION 34

Your computer locks up periodically and feels hot to the touch. Could these things be related?

ANSWER

Yes, many lockup problems are caused by overheating. The first step would be to clean the fan exhaust vents of dust.

QUESTION 35

What crucial piece of information would you need when trying to locate support information about a computer system on the manufacturer's website?

ANSWER

The model number or a service code.

QUESTION 36

If you do not have a support contract, what is likely to be the best option for obtaining advice about a problem with an application?

ANSWER

A product support or community forum.

QUESTION 37

You are looking for content on a topic but your search is returning millions of matches that are not particularly helpful. What two methods could you use to get better search results?

ANSWER

Use more search keywords (ideally with 'uncommon' words) or search for an exact phrase by enclosing it in quotes.

QUESTION 38

You want to find something on a particular website, but the site does not have a search tool. Could you use a general search engine, and if so, how?

ANSWER

Yes—you use an advanced search form or use the site: operator (for example 'certification site:comptia.org').

QUESTION 39

Which notation system supports presenting the largest numbers using the fewest digits: Binary, Decimal, or Hexadecimal?

ANSWER

Hexadecimal. Each hex digit can store 16 bits of information. A single decimal digit stores 4 bits while binary obviously stores 1 bit.

QUESTION 40

What is the decimal number 75 in binary and hexadecimal?

ANSWER

0100 1011 in binary and 4B in hex. Hex notation is often indicated using 0x to precede the hex digits, so you may see this written like 0x4b. To work out the answer without a calculator, write out the place values for each notation system. For binary you'd have columns for 64, 32, 16, 8, 4, 2, and 1 and put a 1 in each column you need to add up to 75 and a 0 in the others. For hex you only need 16 and 1 (75 divided by 16 is 4 remainder 11, which is represented as "B" in hex).

QUESTION 41

Which data type provides for whole numbers only?

ANSWER

Integer.

QUESTION 42

What is the difference between the char and string data types?

ANSWER

Char stores a single textual character in a fixed length field (typically 1 byte). A string is a variable length field for storing a sequence of characters.

QUESTION 43

Which data representation format can encode the widest range of characters?

ANSWER

Unicode can represent millions of characters (glyphs). ASCII's 7-bit data structure can only support 128 characters, some of which are non-printable control characters.

QUESTION 44

What type of legal protection could be obtained for a novel software algorithm?

ANSWER

Patent provides the best protection as it can enforce ownership even if someone tries to write the algorithm in a slightly different way. Software code is often protected both by patent and by copyright however.

QUESTION 45

What data protection technology could you implement in order to restrict the type of activity that users could employ on digital products that they have purchased or rented?

ANSWER

Digital Rights Management (DRM).

QUESTION 46

What part of the process of data analytics is most closely supported by meaningful reporting?

ANSWER

Insights are the "end product" of the analytic process. Humans need a suitable reporting format to make best use of insights.

QUESTION 47

What compatibility information should you confirm before installing a software application?

ANSWER

That it works with the version of Windows that you have and that your computer meets the system (hardware) requirements.

QUESTION 48

Following installation of a program written for an older version of Windows, you receive an alert that it might not have installed correctly. What feature could you use to make the program run correctly?

ANSWER

Use the program's Compatibility tab to use settings for the older Windows version.

QUESTION 49

Why would Windows prompt you to enter a password if you try to install a software application?

ANSWER

Installing an application requires administrator privileges and is an action protected by User Account Control. If you were logged on as an administrator already, you might have to enter the password on a domain; if you were logged on as an ordinary user, you would have to enter the administrator's user name and password.

QUESTION 50

Windows comes with web server software but it is not enabled by default. How would you install this software?

ANSWER

Use the Turn Windows features on or off dialog from Programs and Features.

QUESTION 51

Following installation of an application, another program on your computer has stopped working. What could you do to try to fix it?

ANSWER

Try using the Repair option in Programs and Features (if available) or re-installing the program

QUESTION 52

Why might one of your first tasks on receiving a new computer be to remove software applications?

ANSWER

The computer may be bundled with pre-installed software that you do not want

QUESTION 53

In order to obtain support, the software vendor wants to know the application's product ID. How would you locate this information?

ANSWER

Usually via the Help > About menu.

QUESTION 54

What is the difference between freeware and open source software?

ANSWER

Open source means that the programming code used to design the software is also made available (and you must make it available in turn if you sell or distribute any part of it). Freeware means the software product costs nothing to use but this does not mean that the code is made available too or that you could modify the software and distribute it yourself.

QUESTION 55

What type of software would you use to configure a server by connecting to it over the network?

ANSWER

Remote Desktop.

QUESTION 56

What type of software manages tasks, dependencies, and timelines?

ANSWER

Project management software.

QUESTION 57

What shows the structure of code without using the specific syntax of any one language?

ANSWER

Pseudocode.

QUESTION 58

What is an interpreted language?

ANSWER

Interpreted languages do not need to be compiled. They run within the context of an interpreter which converts the code to machine code during runtime.

QUESTION 59

How is a markup language differ from a compiled language?

ANSWER

Markup doesn't provide instructions for the CPU to run as such. Markup is a way of using nested tags within a document to describe its structure and contents

QUESTION 60

What are constants and variables examples of?

ANSWER

Programming identifiers.

QUESTION 61

What type of programming concept allows for a variable size container?

ANSWER

A vector is a variable size container while an array is a fixed size one.

QUESTION 62

You want to check whether a condition has been met, and if it has, perform one action. Otherwise, you want your program to perform a second action. What sort of programming operation would help achieve this?

ANSWER

A conditional branch, such as an If...Then statement.

QUESTION 63

In a program, what does a loop do?

ANSWER

A loop performs one or more instructions until (or while) a condition is met.

QUESTION 64

What is the difference between a procedure and a function?

ANSWER

A procedure does something while a function does something and then returns a value to the main program.

QUESTION 65

What three things define an object?

ANSWER

Properties, attributes, and methods.

QUESTION 66

What three scripting options are commonly used in Windows 10 to perform administrative tasks?

ANSWER

Batch files, Windows PowerShell scripts, and VBScripts.

QUESTION 67

True or false? You do not need to install a web application to your computer; it would be accessed via a browser.

ANSWER

True.

QUESTION 68

What is the advantage of a local network hosted application, in terms of data storage?

ANSWER

If data is stored on the server not on the local workstation, it is easier to apply access controls and to back it up.

QUESTION 69

What are the structural elements of a database table?

ANSWER

Each table stores information about records (rows in the table) in fields (columns in the tables).

QUESTION 70

What term is used to describe selecting and viewing information in a database?

ANSWER

Query.

QUESTION 71

How does an RDBMS such as Microsoft SQL Server differ from Microsoft Excel when used to store a dataset?

ANSWER

Excel is an example of a flat file system. These do not scale well, and usually support a single user only. RDBMS platforms enable many hundreds or thousands of users to connect concurrently, and can support very large datasets. Also, an RDBMS can enforce data types for each column and validate information entered as fields and records.

QUESTION 72

What language is usually used to request data from an RDBMS such as Oracle?

ANSWER

Structured Query Language (SQL) is used to query RDBMS-based database platforms.

QUESTION 73

What is it that defines the relationship between tables in an RDBMS?

ANSWER

Each table contains a primary key whose value is unique for each record in the table. A foreign table can use the value of a primary key as a relation, storing the value in a foreign key field.

QUESTION 74

Give an example of unstructured data.

ANSWER

Images and text files and other document formats are unstructured data.

QUESTION 75

Give two examples of semi-structured data stores.

ANSWER

Key/value pair databases and markup language document stores.

QUESTION 76

Is an INSERT statement an example of a definition or manipulation language statement?

ANSWER

Manipulation language—it depends on the structure of a table (columns, data types, and constraints) being established already.

QUESTION 77

You need a development environment with a library of database functions. What type of interface are you using?

ANSWER

Programmatic access.

QUESTION 78

How can a client-server application architecture be described if there is the potential for the structure of the application platform to be developed further?

ANSWER

This could be described as a two-tier application. It could be redeveloped as a three-tier application by specifying presentation, application, and data layers.

QUESTION 79

What type of component provides persistent storage?

ANSWER

A mass storage device such as a Hard Disk Drive (HDD), Solid State Drive (SSD), or flash memory. You could also mention optical discs (CD, DVD, Blu-Ray).

QUESTION 80

What computer component is most restrictive in terms of determining upgrade potential for a desktop computer?

ANSWER

The motherboard—it is difficult and expensive to replace.

QUESTION 81

True or false? A plug-in card is always required to support PC sound.

ANSWER

False—sound functions are often provided by the motherboard chipset.

QUESTION 82

What is the main advantage of using a CPU in 64-bit mode?

ANSWER

Makes more system memory accessible. A 64-bit CPU and OS is also required to run 64-bit applications, but there are not too many of these yet. 64-bit software is more reliable and a bit faster than 32-bit software.

QUESTION 83

What is a typical speed for a modern CPU to run at?

ANSWER

Around 2 GHz; budget models might run as low as 1 GHz while the fastest run up to about 3 GHz.

QUESTION 84

You want to purchase a computer with a fast graphics interface. What type of expansion slot should you look for?

ANSWER

PCIe x16—this is a type of PCI Express slot that uses 16 'lanes'. Each lane can transfer 250 MBps (or 500 MBps for PCIe 2 and 1 GBps for v3).

QUESTION 85

What type of component provides a passive cooling solution?

ANSWER

A heatsink or heat spreader removes heat from the component by convection with no power required. However, it is usually necessary to cool the heatsink or heat spreader itself and this is likely to require active cooling (a fan).

QUESTION 86

How would you access the system setup program on a PC?

ANSWER

Historically, by pressing the appropriate key during startup (ESC, DEL, F1, F2, or F10). Modern PCs often use fast boot modes that require some other means of booting to the firmware setup program.

QUESTION 87

True or false? Mice and keyboards must be connected to a computer via PS/2 ports.

ANSWER

False—they are now much more likely to use USB or wireless (Bluetooth or other RF) interfaces.

QUESTION 88

True or false? USB cables have the same connectors at either end.

ANSWER

Partly false—the connectors for the host (PC) and device use different form factors (there are also normal size and mini or micro device connectors). A new reversible Type C connector is starting to be used however.

QUESTION 89

A user has two USB drives connected to her PC. She complains that when she copies large files to both drives at the same time, it seems to take much longer. Why might this be?

ANSWER

Bandwidth on the USB bus is shared between all devices.

QUESTION 90

You want to purchase a flat-panel monitor that can show widescreen movies. You are considering models with native resolutions of 1400x1050 and 1920x1200. Which should you choose?

ANSWER

1920x1200 as this is a widescreen format.

QUESTION 91

True or false? HDMI is the only type of display interface that supports High Definition picture resolutions.

ANSWER

False—there is also DisplayPort and Thunderbolt and some DVI formats also support HD resolutions.

QUESTION 92

You are considering buying a new display device. The model you are considering accepts digital inputs only. Your computer's graphics adapter has a blue port with 15 holes. Would this flat-panel be a wise purchase?

ANSWER

Probably not, as this connector is VGA, which supports analog output only. It is possible to buy converters however.

QUESTION 93

You need to configure settings for an input device. What should be your first step?

ANSWER

Open the Settings app or Control Panel.

QUESTION 94

A friend is asking for your help in using her computer. When he presses the key marked @, a different symbol appears. What could be the cause?

ANSWER

The keyboard is set to use a UK layout—you can correct this using the Language Bar.

QUESTION 95

What type of mouse would you recommend for someone who uses their computer principally to play computer games and why?

ANSWER

Laser mouse—this registers cursor movements more quickly and accurately

QUESTION 96

Which Windows interface is used for advanced management and troubleshooting of devices?

ANSWER

Device Manager is used to update drivers and obtain more advanced troubleshooting information. The basic user interface is either Devices and Printers or the device pages in the Settings app, depending on the Windows version.

QUESTION 97

What do you need to know to connect to a device that is configured over the network?

ANSWER

Typically the Internet Protocol (IP) address of its management page. Some devices may use a name to locate the page instead. You are also likely to be prompted for a user name and password.

QUESTION 98

True or false? If you want to configure the DPI of a display device, you would do so via the Personalization app.

ANSWER

False—Dots Per Inch (DPI) or scaling is configured via Display properties. Personalization is for configuring themes and the appearance of the desktop.

QUESTION 99

You are configuring dual monitors positioned side-by-side. You want to increase the amount of screen space available. Which multiple display option should you set?

ANSWER

Extend the displays.

QUESTION 100

You need to plug a microphone into a computer to make a recording. How would you identify which jack to use?

ANSWER

The jack should be color-coded (pink). There may be an icon to represent usage though. If neither is present, check the system documentation.

QUESTION 101

What, if any, type of printer uses a fuser?

ANSWER

Laser printer—the fuser bonds the toner to the surface of the paper using high heat and pressure.

QUESTION 102

What are the four inks used to produce color prints?

ANSWER

Cyan, Magenta, Yellow, and Black (CMYK).

QUESTION 103

What type of wired interface is a printer MOST likely to use?

ANSWER

Universal Serial Bus (USB).

QUESTION 104

You want to configure a printer to use both sides of the paper (duplex) by default. You have alt-clicked the printer object—which command should you select to proceed?

ANSWER

Printing preferences.

QUESTION 105

What basic command demonstrates that a printer is connected properly to a computer and that its driver is installed correctly for Windows?

ANSWER

Print Test Page.

QUESTION 106

What function of a scanner would you use if you want to convert a letter that someone has mailed to you into a computer-editable document?

ANSWER

Optical Character Recognition (OCR).

QUESTION 107

True or false? If your PC does not have a flash memory card reader, you should be able to connect the camera itself to the PC over USB to copy images off the card.

ANSWER

True—must cameras support USB connections.

QUESTION 108

You have a motherboard that is designed for DDR2 memory that works at a bus speed of 533 MHz. You have some DDR3 memory modules that also work at a bus speed of 533 MHz. Are the modules compatible with the motherboard?

ANSWER

No—DDR3 modules cannot be used in DDR2 slots.

QUESTION 109

Why can't you use memory modules designed for a desktop computer in a laptop?

ANSWER

Laptops use a smaller form factor called SO-DIMM while desktops use DIMMs.

QUESTION 110

A hard drive is rated at 10,000 RPM. What is the significance of this statistic?

ANSWER

The number of revolutions per minute (RPM) is one of the basic factors determining the speed of the drive. 10,000 rpm represents good performance (15K rpm is the best available).

QUESTION 111

What type of connector would you use for an external hard drive to connect to a Windows PC?

ANSWER

USB. Firewire, eSATA, or Thunderbird are also possible but not nearly so popular. Most drives are now USB3 or USB3.1. Note that you can plug a USB3 drive into a USB2 port, so long as you have a USB3 device cable.

QUESTION 112

Your computer has 4 SATA ports. How many hard drives can be installed?

ANSWER

Four—each SATA port can be used to connect one drive.

QUESTION 113

True or false? A single layer Blu-ray Disc has greater capacity than a duallayer, double-sided DVD.

ANSWER

True—the capacity of a single layer Blu-ray disc is 25 GB compared to 17 GB for a dual-layer, double-sided DVD.

QUESTION 114

What sort of device would you need to transfer data from a "Memory Stick?"

ANSWER

Memory card reader/multi-card reader. Do note that Memory Sticks are no longer in production so you could struggle to locate a suitable reader.

QUESTION 115

What sort of device could you use to expand the storage capacity of a smartphone?

ANSWER

Flash memory card.

QUESTION 116

In Windows, you can access data via letter-labeled "drives." Do these correspond exactly to physical disks?

ANSWER

Not necessarily in the case of hard disks, which can be configured with multiple partitions, each of which can be assigned a drive letter. Optical drives and flash memory cards cannot be partitioned however.

QUESTION 117

What type of file system must the partition that Windows files are installed on use?

ANSWER

NTFS.

QUESTION 118

What default installation folders contain system and application files that should not normally be deleted or modified manually?

ANSWER

The 'Windows' and 'Program Files' folders.

QUESTION 119

What is the file path to the Documents folder for a user named "David," assuming Windows is installed to a hard disk with a single partition using the default settings?

ANSWER

C:\Users\David\Documents

QUESTION 120

How is a Windows library different from a folder?

ANSWER

A library acts as a virtual folder by displaying the contents of multiple folders, which could be located on different drives.

QUESTION 121

If you have made changes to a file and want to keep both the original file and the modified version, what command should you use?

ANSWER

Save As.

QUESTION 122

Why should you be more careful about deleting files from a USB flash drive than from the main hard drive?

ANSWER

The files will not be recycled so there is no possibility of retrieving them if you change your mind (at least, not without using specialist data recovery software).

QUESTION 123

What view options could you use to show files of a particular type sorted by date?

ANSWER

Group the files by file type then sort by date

QUESTION 124

What kind of data would you expect to find in a file with a TIFF extension?

ANSWER

This is an image file format

QUESTION 125

What is a zip file?

ANSWER

A file archive containing other files in a compressed format.

QUESTION 126

What is a WAN?

ANSWER

A Wide Area Network (WAN) connects sites in different geographic locations. WANs usually make use of telecommunications and service provider networks rather than being directly operated by the network administrators.

QUESTION 127

What is a packet made up of?

ANSWER

A packet consists of a number of fields contained within a header section plus a payload. The payload could be a packet from the protocol layer above.

QUESTION 128

What are the key features of a packet switching network

ANSWER

Nodes within the network can perform a forwarding function, allowing a packet to utilize any available path through the network. This makes the network robust against link failures. If is beneficial for the network to use small packets that are easy to re-send.

QUESTION 129

What protocol is usually used to provide logical addressing on networks?

ANSWER

Internet Protocol (IP).

QUESTION 130

What type of address identifies a network interface in the context of the local network segment only?

ANSWER

A Media Access Control (MAC) address.

QUESTION 131

What type of device is used to transfer packets between different networks?

ANSWER

A router.

QUESTION 132

Which protocol allows people to use names/labels to address network resources rather than numeric addresses?

ANSWER

Domain Name System (DNS).

QUESTION 133

Which of the following parts of a web address is usually depends on a name resolution service: protocol type, host location, file path?

ANSWER

The host location is usually represented by a Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN), such as www.comptia.org, resolved to a numeric IP address by DNS.

QUESTION 134

What does HTTP stand for?

ANSWER

HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP).

QUESTION 135

Which email protocol(s) are used to download messages from a mail server?

ANSWER

Either Post Office Protocol (POP) or Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP).

QUESTION 136

What device is used to connect computers together in an Ethernet network?

ANSWER

A switch.

QUESTION 137

What is the difference between a modem and a router?

ANSWER

A modem creates a serial link between two computers over some sort of long distance media. It operates at the data link layer. A router makes forwarding decisions between logical networks. It does not need to take account of the framing and transmission details—those are the responsibility of the modem (or of an Ethernet switch or wireless access point). It just needs to know that a particular logical network can be reached over one of its interfaces. Most SOHO devices pack all these functions into a single appliance but it is important to appreciate the differences between the functions.

QUESTION 138

Can you list at least four Internet access methods?

ANSWER

Digital Subscriber Line (DSL), cable/Hybrid Fiber Coax, Fiber to the Curb (FTTC), satellite, and cellular radio.

QUESTION 139

What is the latest Wi-Fi standard and which frequency band(s) does it use?

ANSWER

IEEE 802.11ac works in the 5 GHz band. Most 802.11ac access points do have 2.4 GHz radios but they use them to support legacy standards.

QUESTION 140

What information do you need to configure a wireless connection manually?

ANSWER

Service Set ID (SSID)/network name, encryption type, and authentication information (a preshared key if not using enterprise authentication).

QUESTION 141

What is the risk of using a free Wi-Fi network to make an order from an online shop?

ANSWER

Data on an open network may be intercepted by the person running the network or by other computers connected to the network. You need to ensure that the online store uses a secure (HTTPS) connection.

QUESTION 142

What does attenuation mean?

ANSWER

Attenuation describes the loss of strength of a signal the farther it has to travel. Attenuation sets the distance limitations on different network media types.

QUESTION 143

If you use an open network, what email configuration setting should you ensure is enabled?

ANSWER

Enable Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security (SSL/TLS) encryption to protect the account password.

QUESTION 144

You have installed a screensaver application. Later, after updating your antivirus software, a malicious program is found. This appears to have infected your system at the same time as the screensaver was installed. What class of malware is this?

ANSWER

Trojan Horse.

QUESTION 145

You want to use a website that hosts training modules in a custom media format. What type of add-on would you need to install to play this media?

ANSWER

You would need to install a type of browser add-on called a plugin. Plug-ins should be restricted to interacting with the media object on the web page.

QUESTION 146

What type of file might a website use to track whether you have visited it before?

ANSWER

Cookie.

QUESTION 147

True or false? Browser pop-up windows are definite symptoms of virus infection.

ANSWER

False—these could be a result of adware or part of the design of a particular site (admittedly, not a site you'd want to visit often).

QUESTION 148

You are using a computer in an Internet cafe. What should you do at the end of the session

ANSWER

Clear the browser cache or use the workstation's browser private/incognito browsing mode.

QUESTION 149

What identifies a website as using the secure HTTPS protocol with a valid certificate?

ANSWER

The URL shows the "https://" protocol and the browser shows a padlock icon. For sites that have passed special validation regimes, the address bar will be shown in green. If a site uses https but the certificate is not trusted by the browser, an alert is displayed.

QUESTION 150

You want to restrict access to a computer on your network to a single Internet host running a particular application. What two things do you need to configure in your firewall's access control list?

ANSWER

The IP address of the host and the port number of the application.

QUESTION 151

True or false? A hard disk connected to a computer via a USB port could be described as "Direct Attached Storage."

ANSWER

True.

QUESTION 152

What type of connection would a NAS device use?

ANSWER

Network Attached Storage (NAS) means using either a cabled (Ethernet) or Wi-Fi link to the network.

QUESTION 153

Which admin tool or screen would you use to configure a Windows computer to join a domain?

ANSWER

Via the System applet in Control Panel or via the Settings app (Access work or school).

QUESTION 154

True or false? Any version or edition of Windows can be used to share files with other users.

ANSWER

True—non-server editions are restricted in the number of simultaneous clients though.

QUESTION 155

How could you access a network folder called DATA on a network server called TOWER1 using the Explorer address bar?

ANSWER

By entering the UNC path: \\TOWER1\DATA

QUESTION 156

What is a mapped drive?

ANSWER

A folder shared by a network server that the client connects to via a drive letter that redirects to the network share name (\\Server\Folder).

QUESTION 157

What protocol would be used to provide encrypted file downloads from a web server?

ANSWER

HTTPS—HyperText Transfer Protocol with Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security (SSL/TLS).

QUESTION 158

You have made a backup of system data using a removable hard disk. What should you do next?

ANSWER

Store the disk in a secure location—preferably in a different place to the PC.

QUESTION 159

What type of gesture is typically used for zooming on a touchscreen?

ANSWER

Pinch.

QUESTION 160

What is the purpose of an accelerometer, as fitted in a mobile device?

ANSWER

It is one of the components that detects how the user is moving the device around. This is used to set the screen orientation and as an advanced control mechanism.

QUESTION 161

What feature allows data to be removed from a device if is lost or stolen?

ANSWER

This is referred to as remote wipe or sometimes as a kill switch.

QUESTION 162

rue or false? A smartphone cannot join a Wi-Fi network if the SSID is not being broadcast.

ANSWER

False—the SSID (or network name) can be entered manually, as with a computer.

QUESTION 163

What is "airplane mode?"

ANSWER

A quick toggle for disabling all wireless functionality (cellular, Wi-Fi, and Bluetooth).

QUESTION 164

Which property of secure information is compromised by snooping?

ANSWER

Confidentiality—keeping information disclosure restricted to authorized persons only.

QUESTION 165

An attacker has used a rogue access point to intercept traffic passing between wireless clients and the wired network segment. What type of attack is this?

ANSWER

This is typical of a Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack.

QUESTION 166

What type of access mechanism is MOST vulnerable to a replay attack?

ANSWER

Use of a token generated by software. If the token is not authenticated properly by the server, it could be vulnerable to replay, where someone else obtaining the token can masquerade as the original user.

QUESTION 167

Which specific attack uses a botnet to threaten availability?

ANSWER

Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS).

QUESTION 168

In considering availability concerns, what use might a lockable faceplate on a server-class computer be?

ANSWER

It may prevent the user switching the machine on or off (useful for servers) or accessing removable drives and ports.

QUESTION 169

What does AAA stand for?

ANSWER

Authentication, Authorization, Accounting.

QUESTION 170

Why should a security policy instruct users not to reveal their password to technical support staff?

ANSWER

It exposes users to social engineering attacks to gather login credentials for malicious use. Any request for a password should be treated by users as suspicious.

QUESTION 171

How might someone masquerade as someone else when using email or Instant Messaging?

ANSWER

By accessing their user account—this could be done by stealing their login information, using an unattended computer that was still logged in, or using malware such as a Trojan.

QUESTION 172

What are the three main areas where redundancy should be provisioned?

ANSWER

Data/storage (RAID), network links, and power. You might additionally mention site-level redundancy, though this is very expensive to provision.

QUESTION 173

Why is prioritization a critical task for disaster recovery?

ANSWER

Services may have dependencies that make restoring them in the wrong order futile. Also, disasters lead to scarce resources so the most critical services must be given priority. These should be identified before the disaster occurs so that staff working to recover systems are properly guided.

QUESTION 174

Part of host hardening is to reduce the attack surface. What configuration changes does reducing the attack surface involve?

ANSWER

Removing unwanted and unnecessary software, disabling unused OS features and services, and closing unnecessary network ports. This reduces the ways other hosts or processes can interact with the hardened host.

QUESTION 175

What is the main difference between virus and worm malware?

ANSWER

A virus has to infect a file whereas a worm propagates in memory and over computer networks.

QUESTION 176

How might malware hosted on a website be able to infect your computer simply by your browsing the site?

ANSWER

By exploiting a vulnerability in software installed on your computer (a fault or "exploit" in the browser, a browser plug-in, or the OS for instance).

QUESTION 177

How might spyware be able to steal a password?

ANSWER

Typically by monitoring key strokes (a key logger). It might also be able to steal password databases and decrypt them.

QUESTION 178

What type of malware is being described? The malware encrypts the user's documents folder and any attached removable disks then extorts the user for money to release the encryption key.

ANSWER

Ransomware.

QUESTION 179

True or false? Most anti-virus software can remediate a system by blocking access to an infected file but not actually deleting it.

ANSWER

True—this is called quarantining the file.

QUESTION 180

What is the main means by which anti-virus software identifies infected files?

ANSWER

Using definitions or signatures of known virus code. These definitions must be kept up-to-date.

QUESTION 181

What are the two main ways that spam might expose recipients to hazardous content?

ANSWER

Through malware-infected attachments and through links to malicious websites.

QUESTION 182

Your friend sent you an email link, which you have opened, and now the browser is asking whether you should install a plug-in to view all the content on the page. Should you proceed?

ANSWER

No—this is a classic phishing attack and your friend's computer could be infected with a virus or Trojan. Check whether they sent the link in good faith first.

QUESTION 183

True or false? An OEM site is a reputable source of management software and drivers for a particular system.

ANSWER

True—an Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) in the IT industry, such as Dell or HP, assembles systems made from the parts and software of various other suppliers. The components used in their systems may be specific to their brand and so they host their own support files for any system they sell.

QUESTION 184

What are the four processes of an access control system?

ANSWER

Identification, Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting.

QUESTION 185

Users should only be granted the minimum sufficient permissions. What system policy ensures that users do not receive rights unless granted explicitly?

ANSWER

Implicit deny.

QUESTION 186

What is the main type of non-discretionary access control?

ANSWER

Mandatory Access Control—though any rules-based system might restrict discretionary aspects of granting rights.

QUESTION 187

What type of control prevents a user from denying they performed an action?

ANSWER

Non-repudiation. Examples of controls providing non-repudiation include logging, video surveillance, biometrics, signatures, and receipts/tokens.

QUESTION 188

What sort of account allows someone to access a computer without providing a user name or password?

ANSWER

Guest account.

QUESTION 189

How does a one-time password work?

ANSWER

The password is generated by an asymmetric encryption algorithm. This means that the authenticating server can determine that the number was generated by a particular device (fob) at a particular time. When used with a PIN, it also proves that the password was input by a particular user.

QUESTION 190

What type of system allows a user to authenticate once to access multiple services?

ANSWER

Single Sign-On (SSO).

QUESTION 191

What type of cryptographic operation(s) are non-reversible?

ANSWER

Cryptographic hashing. You might also mention asymmetric encryption and public/private key pairs, where an operation performed with one key can only be reversed by the linked key and NOT by the key that performed the original operation.

QUESTION 192

What class of data is a transport encryption protocol designed to protect?

ANSWER

Data in transit (or data in motion).

QUESTION 193

Why is it important not to use simple words or names as a password?

ANSWER

Password-cracking software is configured with dictionaries of such names and phrases. Even if the password is encrypted, if it matches a term in the password-cracking dictionary it will be discovered in seconds.

QUESTION 194

What is a SOP?

ANSWER

Standard Operating Procedure.

QUESTION 195

Apart from passwords and PII, what other type(s) of confidential information should be governed by classification and handling procedures?

ANSWER

Company confidential information and customer information.

QUESTION 196

Why might a company ban use of the corporate network and desktop software for personal communications?

ANSWER

The company might be held responsible for inappropriate content posted by its employees. The issue of privacy is also complex and it is often better for both the company and the employee to use corporate systems for business communications only.

QUESTION 197

What two main privacy issues arise from using a social networking site?

ANSWER

Firstly, you need to control how far information you post to the site is distributed. You could make it private, accessible to close friends only, accessible to all your contacts, or accessible to anyone. Secondly, you need to know how the company processes, stores, and transfers or sells any data it collects about you, including information you post and your activity on the site.

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