IT CertificationsComprehensive Study Set

Comptia Exam Objectives Security+

759 questions across 0 topics. Use the find bar or section chips to jump to what you need.

Community-sourced. Answers may be wrong or out of date. Always verify with your official training portal before submitting. Not affiliated with any branch, agency, or vendor. Details.
QUESTION 1

Phishing

ANSWER

fraudulent attempt to obtain sensitive information or data, by disguising oneself as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication.

QUESTION 2

Smishing

ANSWER

When someone tries to trick you into giving them your private information via a text or SMS message.

QUESTION 3

Vishing

ANSWER

Using social engineering over the telephone system to gain access to private personal and financial information for the purpose of financial reward

QUESTION 4

Spam

ANSWER

irrelevant or unsolicited messages sent to a large number of Internet users, for illegitimate advertising, and other activities such as phishing, and spreading malware

QUESTION 5

SPIM

ANSWER

Spam delivered through instant messaging (IM) instead of through e-mail messaging

QUESTION 6

Spear Phishing

ANSWER

the act of sending emails to specific and well-researched targets while pretending to be a trusted sender

QUESTION 7

Dumpster Diving

ANSWER

exploration of a system's trash bin for the purpose of finding details in order for a hacker to have a successful online assault.

QUESTION 8

Shoulder Surfing

ANSWER

When someone watches over your shoulder to nab valuable information as you key it into an electronic device.

QUESTION 9

Pharming

ANSWER

cyberattack intended to redirect a website's traffic to another, fake site.

QUESTION 10

Tailgating

ANSWER

Social engineering attempt by cyber threat actors in which they trick employees into helping them gain unauthorized access into the company premises.

QUESTION 11

Eliciting Information

ANSWER

Procedures or techniques involving interacting with and communicating with others that is designed to gather knowledge or inform

QUESTION 12

Whaling

ANSWER

Spear phishing that focuses on one specific high level executive or influencer

QUESTION 13

Prepending

ANSWER

Prepend is a word that means to attach content as a prefix. For example, a prepend command could be used in a scripting language that a programmer would enter into a certain function or code module. It would add certain characters of text to the beginning of some variable or object.

QUESTION 14

Identity Fraud

ANSWER

identity fraud is the use of stolen information such as making fake ID's and fake bank accounts

QUESTION 15

Invoice Scams

ANSWER

using fraudulent invoices to steal from a company

QUESTION 16

Credential Harvesting

ANSWER

the use of MITM attacks, DNS poisoning, phishing, etc. to amass large numbers of credentials (username / password combinations) for reuse.

QUESTION 17

Reconnaissance

ANSWER

- Information gathering about a target network

QUESTION 18

Hoax

ANSWER

Cyber hoax scams are attacks that exploit unsuspecting users to provide valuable information, such as login credentials or money.

QUESTION 19

Impersonation

ANSWER

typically involves an email that seems to come from a trusted source.

QUESTION 20

Watering hole attack

ANSWER

security exploit in which the attacker seeks to compromise a specific group of end users by infecting websites that members of the group are known to visit. The goal is to infect a targeted user's computer and gain access to the network at the target's place of employment.

QUESTION 21

Typo squatting

ANSWER

type of cybersquatting used by imposters that involve registering domains with intentionally misspelled names of popular web addresses to install malware on the user's system

QUESTION 22

Pretexting

ANSWER

the practice of presenting oneself as someone else in order to obtain private information.

QUESTION 23

Influence campaigns

ANSWER

actors designed to sow discord, manipulate public discourse, discredit the electoral system, bias the development of policy, or disrupt markets for the purpose of undermining interests

QUESTION 24

Hybrid warfare

ANSWER

- Combining conventional warfare with cyberwarfare

QUESTION 25

Social Media Campaign

ANSWER

Planned, coordinated marketing efforts using one or more social media platforms.

QUESTION 26

Principles:

ANSWER

Authority: an attacker may try to appear to have a certain level authority. Intimidation: may try to make the victim think that something terrible is going to happen if they don't comply with the attacker's wishes. Consensus: An attacker may try to sway the mind of a victim using names they are familiar with, saying that such ones provided them information (they are fishing for) in the past and you should be able to do the same. Scarcity: An attacker may try to set a time limit on a victim so that they can comply with their wishes by a certain deadline. Familiarity: they make you familiar with them on the phone and make you want to do things for them. Trust: The attacker in this case can claim to be a friend or close associate of someone you may know very well and that's trusted. Urgency: When attackers want you to act and not think, they want you to do what they want as quickly as possible so that there's no time to spot all the red flags.

QUESTION 27

Malware

ANSWER

a program or file designed to be disruptive, invasive and harmful to your computer.

QUESTION 28

Ransomware

ANSWER

Software that encrypts programs and data until a ransom is paid to remove it.

QUESTION 29

Worms

ANSWER

Independent computer programs that copy themselves from one computer to other computers over a network

QUESTION 30

potentially unwanted program (PUP)

ANSWER

program that installs itself on a computer, typically without the user's informed consent

QUESTION 31

Fileless virus

ANSWER

Software that uses legitimate programs to infect a computer. It does not rely on files and leaves no footprint, making it challenging to detect and remove.

QUESTION 32

command and control

ANSWER

A computer controlled by an attacker or cybercriminal which is used to send commands to systems compromised by malware and receive stolen data from a target network

QUESTION 33

Bots

ANSWER

self-propagating malware that infects its host and connects back to a central server(s).

QUESTION 34

Cryptomalware

ANSWER

Malware to remain in place for as long as possible, quietly mining in the background.

QUESTION 35

logic bomb

ANSWER

A computer program or part of a program that lies dormant until it is triggered by a specific logical event.

QUESTION 36

Spyware

ANSWER

Type of malware that infects your PC or mobile device and gathers information about you, including the sites you visit, the things you download, your usernames and passwords, payment information, and the emails you send and receive.

QUESTION 37

Keyloggers

ANSWER

software that tracks or logs the keys struck on your keyboard, typically in a covert manner so that you don't know that your actions are being monitored.

QUESTION 38

Remote Access Trojan

ANSWER

type of malware that allows covert surveillance, a backdoor for administrative control and unfettered and unauthorized remote access to a victim's machine.

QUESTION 39

Rootkit

ANSWER

software program, typically malicious, that provides privileged, root-level (i.e., administrative) access to a computer while concealing its presence on that machine

QUESTION 40

Backdoor

ANSWER

refers to any method by which authorized and unauthorized users are able to get around normal security measures and gain high level user access (aka root access) on a computer system, network, or software application.

QUESTION 41

Password Attack

ANSWER

Any type of attack in which the attacker attempts to obtain and make use of passwords illegitimately.

QUESTION 42

Spraying password attack

ANSWER

an attack that attempts to access a large number of accounts (usernames) with a few commonly used passwords.

QUESTION 43

Dictionary password attack

ANSWER

An attack method that takes all the words from a dictionary file and attempts to log on by entering each dictionary entry as a password.

QUESTION 44

brute force password attack (offline and online)

ANSWER

an attempt to guess a password by attempting every possible combination of characters and numbers in it

QUESTION 45

Rainbow Tables

ANSWER

an attack on a password that uses a large pregenerated data set of hashes from nearly every possible password

QUESTION 46

Plaintext/unencrypted password attack

ANSWER

the attacker has access to pairs of known plaintexts and their corresponding ciphertexts. The goal is to guess the secret key (or a number of secret keys) or to develop an algorithm which would allow him to decrypt any further messages.

QUESTION 47

Malicious universal serial bus (USB) cable

ANSWER

usb which performs an unexpected, and unwanted function.

QUESTION 48

Malicious flash drive

ANSWER

USB sticks are leveraged where an attacker needs physical access to a computer. The first notorious incident was observed back in 2010 when the notorious Stuxnet worm was distributed via USB sticks to launch attacks on the networks of an Iranian facility

QUESTION 49

Card cloning

ANSWER

the practice of making an unauthorized copy of a credit card. ... It requires copying information at a credit card terminal using an electronic device or software, then transferring the information from the stolen card to a new card or rewriting an existing card with the information.

QUESTION 50

Skimming

ANSWER

Illegal practice used by identity thieves to capture credit card information from a cardholder surreptitiously.

QUESTION 51

Adversarial artificial intelligence (AI)

ANSWER

1. Tainted training for machine learning (ML) 2. Security of machine learning algorithms

QUESTION 52

Supply-chain attacks

ANSWER

when hackers manipulate the code in third-party software components in order to compromise the 'downstream' applications that use them.

QUESTION 53

Cloud-based vs. on-premises attacks

ANSWER

Data center employees are there solely to protect your data. Keep data secure with high efficiency from the start

QUESTION 54

Cryptographic attacks

ANSWER

1. Birthday: 2. Collision: 3. Downgrade:

QUESTION 55

Privilege escalation

ANSWER

type of network attack used to obtain unauthorized access to systems within the security perimeter, or sensitive systems, of an organization.

QUESTION 56

Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

ANSWER

A web security vulnerability that allows an attacker to compromise the interactions that users have with a vulnerable application. It allows an attacker to circumvent the same origin policy, which is designed to segregate different websites from each other.

QUESTION 57

Injections

ANSWER

the exploitation of a computer bug that is caused by processing invalid data into a vulnerable computer program and change the course of execution.

QUESTION 58

Structured query language (SQL)

ANSWER

A relational data language that provides a consistent, English keyword-oriented set of facilities for query, data definition, data manipulation and data control. It is a programmed interface to relational database management systems

QUESTION 59

Dynamic link library

ANSWER

collection of small programs that can be loaded when needed by larger programs and used at the same time. The small program lets the larger program communicate with a specific device, such as a printer or scanner.

QUESTION 60

Lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP)

ANSWER

an open and cross platform protocol used for directory services authentication

QUESTION 61

Extensible markup language (XML)

ANSWER

Used to describe data. The standard is a flexible way to create information formats and electronically share structured data via the public Internet, as well as via corporate networks

QUESTION 62

Pointer/object dereference

ANSWER

Occurs when the application dereferences a pointer that it expects to be valid, but is NULL, typically causing a crash or exit

QUESTION 63

Directory traversal

ANSWER

HTTP attack which allows attackers to access restricted directories and execute commands outside of the web server's root directory

QUESTION 64

Buffer overflows

ANSWER

Insertion of malicious code into memory by overrunning buffers outside of their assigned memory space.

QUESTION 65

Race conditions(Time of check/time of use)

ANSWER

when a software program depends on the timing of one or more processes to function correctly

QUESTION 66

Error handling

ANSWER

Refers to the routines in a program that respond to abnormal input or conditions

QUESTION 67

Improper input handling

ANSWER

The term used to describe functions such as validation, sanitization, filt ering, or encoding and/or decoding of input data.

QUESTION 68

Replay attack (session replays)

ANSWER

When a cybercriminal eavesdrops on a secure network communication, intercepts it, and then fraudulently delays or resends it to misdirect the receiver into doing what the hacker wants.

QUESTION 69

Integer overflow

ANSWER

the condition that occurs when the result of an arithmetic operation, such as multiplication or addition, exceeds the maximum size of the integer type used to store it. If a programmer stores the value 127 in such a variable and adds 1 to it, the result should be 128

QUESTION 70

Request forgeries

ANSWER

1. Server-side 2. Cross-site

QUESTION 71

Application programming interface (API) attacks

ANSWER

Hostile usage, or attempted hostile usage, of an API

QUESTION 72

Resource exhaustion

ANSWER

The depletion effect which is manifested in the higher marginal recovery costs encountered as the resource stock is depleted.

QUESTION 73

Memory leak

ANSWER

When an application requests memory but never releases it

QUESTION 74

Secure sockets layer (SSL) stripping

ANSWER

A technique that downgrades your connection from secure HTTPS to insecure HTTP and exposes you to eavesdropping and data manipulation.

QUESTION 75

Driver manipulation

ANSWER

attackers into device drivers so that they undermine security on your computer.

QUESTION 76

Shimming

ANSWER

Additional code that can be run instead of the original driver

QUESTION 77

Refactoring

ANSWER

Improving the internal structure of an existing program's source code, while preserving its external behavior.

QUESTION 78

Pass the hash

ANSWER

A hacking technique that allows an attacker to authenticate to a remote server or service by using the underlying NTLM or LanMan hash of a user's password, instead of requiring the associated plaintext password as is normally the case. It replaces the need for stealing the plaintext password with merely stealing the hash and using that to authenticate with.

QUESTION 79

Wireless Evil Twin

ANSWER

Attack involves an attacker setting up a fraudulent wireless access point

QUESTION 80

Rogue access point

ANSWER

Wireless access point that has been installed on a secure network without explicit authorization from a local network administrator, whether added by a well-meaning employee or by a malicious attacker.

QUESTION 81

Bluesnarfing

ANSWER

Theft of user Bluetooth-enabled devices data.

QUESTION 82

Bluejacking

ANSWER

Some users with Bluetooth-enabled mobiles use this technology to send anonymous text messages to strangers.

QUESTION 83

Disassociation

ANSWER

A type of DoS attack in which the attacker breaks the wireless connection between the victim device and the access point.

QUESTION 84

Jamming

ANSWER

The transmission of radio signals that disrupt communications by decreasing the Signal-to-Inference-plus-Noise ratio

QUESTION 85

Radio frequency identifier (RFID)

ANSWER

A wireless system comprised of two components: tags and readers .Tags, which use radio waves to communicate their identity and other information to nearby readers, can be passive or active.

QUESTION 86

Near Field Communication (NFC)

ANSWER

A set of standards primarily for smartphones and smart cards that can be used to establish communication between devices in close proximity.

QUESTION 87

Initialization Vector (IV)

ANSWER

A 24-bit value used in WEP that changes each time a packet is encrypted.

QUESTION 88

On-path attack(Man-in-the-middle)

ANSWER

Attackers place themselves between two devices (often a web browser and a web server) and intercept or modify communications between the two.

QUESTION 89

Layer 2 attacks

ANSWER

-Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) Attacks. -Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) Attacks. -Media Access Control (MAC) Spoofing. -Content Addressable Memory (CAM) Table Overflows. -Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)/Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) Reconnaissance. -Virtual LAN (VLAN) Hopping.

QUESTION 90

Address resolution protocol poisoning

ANSWER

Type of cyber attack carried out over a Local Area Network (LAN) that involves sending malicious ARP packets to a default gateway on a LAN in order to change the pairings in its IP to MAC address table.

QUESTION 91

Media access control flooding

ANSWER

Setting the MAC address of your PC or any other MAC address as your device WAN port

QUESTION 92

MAC Cloning

ANSWER

A hierarchical system for naming resources on the Internet.

QUESTION 93

Domain Name System (DNS)

ANSWER

An attack where an organization's web address is stolen by another party. The other party changes the enrollment of another's domain name without the consent of its legitimate owner.

QUESTION 94

Domain jacking

ANSWER

Technique used by criminals to alter DNS records and drive users to fake sites, to committing phishing.

QUESTION 95

DNS poisoning

ANSWER

A webserver function that sends a user from one URL to another.

QUESTION 96

Universal resource locator redirection

ANSWER

The overall "health" of your branded domain as interpreted by mailbox providers

QUESTION 97

Domain reputation

ANSWER

An attack that uses many computers to perform a DoS attack.

QUESTION 98

Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)

ANSWER

layer 3 attack is to slow down or crash a program, service, computer, or network, or to fill up capacity so that no one else can receive service.

QUESTION 99

DDOS network

ANSWER

Target the application layer of the Internet in order to disrupt the normal flow of traffic to a website or service.

QUESTION 100

DDOS application

ANSWER

Disrupting the normal traffic from to a specific device in operation

QUESTION 101

DDOS operational technology

ANSWER

Any code in any part of a software system or script that is intended to cause undesired effects, security breaches or damage to a system.

QUESTION 102

Malicious code or script execution

ANSWER

An automated task framework from Microsoft, with a command line shell and a scripting language integrated into the .NET framework, which can be embedded within other applications.

QUESTION 103

Powershell

ANSWER

An interpreted, object-oriented, high-level programming language with dynamic semantics.

QUESTION 104

Python

ANSWER

A Unix shell and command language written by Brian Fox for the GNU Project as a free software replacement

QUESTION 105

Bash

ANSWER

A single instruction that expands automatically into a set of instructions to perform a particular task.

QUESTION 106

Macros

ANSWER

programming language you can use to create macros

QUESTION 107

Visual Basic for Applications (VBA)

ANSWER

a sophisticated, possibly long-running computer hack that is perpetrated by large, well-funded organizations such as governments

QUESTION 108

Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)

ANSWER

Current or former employee, contractor or other partner that has or had authorized access and intentionally misused that access

QUESTION 109

Insider threats

ANSWER

A person who is acting on behalf of a governmental body, and is therefore subject to limitations imposed on government by the United States Constitution

QUESTION 110

State actors

ANSWER

A protester seeking to make a political point by leveraging technology tools, often through system infiltration, defacement, or damage.

QUESTION 111

Hacktivists

ANSWER

Individuals who want to break into computers to create damage, yet lack the advanced knowledge of computers and networks needed to do so.

QUESTION 112

Script kiddies

ANSWER

Significant area of organized crime and consist of the supply of illegal goods and services; smuggling, bootlegging, gambling, prostitution and foreign exchange violations are examples of such crimes.

QUESTION 113

Criminal syndicates

ANSWER

Strives to operate in the public's best interest rather than to create turmoil.

QUESTION 114

Authorized Hackers

ANSWER

Intentionally gain unauthorized access to networks and systems with malicious intent.

QUESTION 115

Unauthorized hackers

ANSWER

computer security expert who may sometimes violate laws or typical ethical standards,

QUESTION 116

Semi-authorized hackers

ANSWER

Projects that are managed outside of, and without the knowledge of, the IT department

QUESTION 117

Shadow IT

ANSWER

An organization or country engaged in commercial or economic competition with others.

QUESTION 118

Competitors

ANSWER

-threats originate from sources outside of the organization and its network of partners -encompasses company full-time employees, independent contractors, interns, and other staff.

QUESTION 119

Internal/external actors

ANSWER

Varying degrees of expertise, so the sophistication level of the attacker, if known, can describe the attacker's skill and knowledge. Disco Team is labeled as expert due to advanced attack methods and proficiency with tools or malicious code.

QUESTION 120

Level of sophistication/capability in actors

ANSWER

APTs, and nation states have a penchant for long-term attacks, which requires this which only major organizations or government can manage over time.

QUESTION 121

Resources/funding (attributes of actors)

ANSWER

This can be simple or multifold in nature. A script kiddie is just trying to make a technique work. A more skilled threat actor is usually pursuing a specific objective, such as trying to make a point as a hacktivist. At the top of the intent pyramid is the APT threat actor, whose intent or motivation is at least threefold.

QUESTION 122

Intent/motivation (attributes of actors)

ANSWER

physical access vector;keylogger

QUESTION 123

Vectors direct access

ANSWER

vector that uses evil twin, rogue WAP

QUESTION 124

Wireless Vectors

ANSWER

vector that uses phishing , social engineering, malware

QUESTION 125

Vector Email

ANSWER

represents a unique combination of theory and front-line practice that creates clear links between supply chain tactics and financial performance.

QUESTION 126

Vector Supply Chain

ANSWER

vector that uses information from social media

QUESTION 127

Vector Social Media

ANSWER

vector that interacts with usb

QUESTION 128

Vector Removable Media

ANSWER

attack vector is a path or means by which a hacker can gain access to a computer or network server in order to deliver malicious outcome. Attack vectors include viruses, e-mail attachments, Web pages, pop-up windows, instant messages, chat rooms, and deception.

QUESTION 129

Vector Cloud

ANSWER

Is evidence-based knowledge, including context, mechanisms, indicators, implications and action-oriented advice about an existing or emerging menace or hazard to assets.

QUESTION 130

Threat intelligence sources

ANSWER

Information from media (newspapers, television), public government reports, professional and academic publications, and other openly available.

QUESTION 131

Open-Source Intelligence (OSINT)

ANSWER

Are typically commercial solutions which incur a cost to use. Intelligence generated by these services can remain closed source, but some can trickle into the open source domain over time.

QUESTION 132

Closed/proprietary threat intelligence source

ANSWER

A platform aimed at collecting, maintaining, and disseminating information about discovered computer security vulnerabilities.

QUESTION 133

Vulnerability databases

ANSWER

An industry-specific organization that gathers and shares information on cyber threats to critical infrastructure. ISACs also facilitate the sharing of data between public and private sector groups.

QUESTION 134

Public/private information-sharing centers

ANSWER

The part of the World Wide Web that is only accessible by means of special software, allowing users and website operators to remain anonymous or untraceable.

QUESTION 135

Dark Web

ANSWER

- unusual outbound traffic - anomalies in privileged account - geographic irregularities - login failures - swells in database read volume - large html responses - many requests for one file - mismatched port-applications - suspicious registry changes - spikes in dns requests from one host

QUESTION 136

Indicators of compromise

ANSWER

system that enables the sharing of attack indicators between the US government and the private sector as soon as the treat is verified

QUESTION 137

Automated Indicator Sharing (AIS)

ANSWER

An XML structured language for expressing and sharing threat intelligence

QUESTION 138

Structured Threat Information eXpression (STIX)

ANSWER

Effort aims to enable robust, secure, and high-volume exchanges of significantly more expressive sets of cyber threat information.

QUESTION 139

Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information (TAXII)

ANSWER

the use of data warehouses and complex algorithms to forecast future events, based on historical trends and calculated probabilities

QUESTION 140

Predictive analysis

ANSWER

A visual representation of the source and destination locations around the world for the traffic

QUESTION 141

Threat maps

ANSWER

A central file storage location

QUESTION 142

File/code repositories

ANSWER

Are platforms that allow businesses to connect and collaborate with their third-party suppliers on the internet.

QUESTION 143

Vendor websites

ANSWER

A feed that provides the product/platform applicability statement to CPE URI matching based on the CPEs in the official CPE dictionary.

QUESTION 144

Vulnerability feeds

ANSWER

A formal meeting for discussion.

QUESTION 145

Conferences

ANSWER

A periodical publication in which scholarship relating to a particular academic discipline is published.

QUESTION 146

Academic journals

ANSWER

A document published by the IETF that details information about standardized Internet protocols and those in various development stages.

QUESTION 147

Request for Comments (RFC)

ANSWER

A way of grouping individual companies or stocks based on common business lines

QUESTION 148

Local industry groups

ANSWER

The process of analyzing social media data to conduct quantitative (and at times qualitative) research in order to understand how audiences relate to topics, by using tools and data extraction techniques.

QUESTION 149

Social media research source

ANSWER

An ongoing stream of data related to potential or current threats to an organization's security

QUESTION 150

Threat feed research source

ANSWER

Describes an approach of analyzing an APT's operation or can be used as means of profiling a certain threat actor.

QUESTION 151

Adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTP)

ANSWER

Cloud security is also typically cheaper because you don't have to spend money on dedicated hardware, plus you don't have to constantly monitor security. On-premises security, on the other hand, is exactly what it sounds like—security measures physically on the premises of a business. On-premises security refers to both the rules and tools in place to protect the security and accessibility of computer networks, including both hardware and software.

QUESTION 152

Cloud-based vs. on-premises vulnerabilities

ANSWER

A cyber attack that occurs on the same day a weakness is discovered in software.

QUESTION 153

Zero-day

ANSWER

low bit amount, no salt

QUESTION 154

Weak encryption

ANSWER

All permissions allowed

QUESTION 155

Open permissions

ANSWER

easy password, no password default password for admin account

QUESTION 156

Unsecure root accounts

ANSWER

lack of knowledge of the system or a lack of attention to detail, the result might be an open vulnerability that leaves the system or network exposed to security threats and potential damage

QUESTION 157

Errors in weak configurations

ANSWER

use of WEP or low bit encryptions in configurations

QUESTION 158

Weak encryption in weak configurations

ANSWER

protocols with no encryption

QUESTION 159

Unsecure protocols in weak configurations

ANSWER

credentials unchanged

QUESTION 160

Default setting in weak configurations

ANSWER

unclosed ports in weak configurations that use unsecure protocols

QUESTION 161

Open ports and services in weak configurations

ANSWER

potential risk that. arises from financial institutions relying on outside parties to perform services or activities on their behalf.

QUESTION 162

Third-party risks

ANSWER

1. System integration 2. Lack of vendor support

QUESTION 163

Vendor management

ANSWER

potential threat presented to organizations' employee and customer data, financial information and operations from the organization's supply-chain and other outside parties that provide products and/or services and have access to privileged systems.

QUESTION 164

Third-part risks in supply chain

ANSWER

-Financial/reputational: Risk that a third party could damage your revenue or reputation. ... -Legal and regulatory: Risk that a third party will impact your compliance with legislation or regulation. ... -Operational: Risk that a third party could disrupt your operations.

QUESTION 165

Third-party risks in outsourced code development

ANSWER

risk of data not being physically accessible

QUESTION 166

Third-party risks in data storage

ANSWER

Firmware: Operating system: Applications:

QUESTION 167

Improper or weak patch management

ANSWER

is an operating system (OS) no longer in widespread use, or that has been supplanted by an updated version of earlier technology.

QUESTION 168

Legacy platforms

ANSWER

data is accidentally deleted or something causes data to become corrupted;Losing files and documents often has a lasting impact on your company's financial health.

QUESTION 169

Impacts of data loss

ANSWER

can come in the form of damage to the target company's reputation due to a perceived 'betrayal of trust. ' Victims and their customers may also suffer financial losses should related records be part of the information stolen.

QUESTION 170

Impacts of data breaches

ANSWER

potentially sensitive information becomes available to external parties who may misuse or abuse it

QUESTION 171

Impacts of data exfiltration

ANSWER

impact your ability to get credit, but it can also hurt your job prospects and increase your auto and homeowners insurance premiums.

QUESTION 172

Impacts of identity theft

ANSWER

devastating, with an individual's emotional wellbeing a primary casualty, and mental health also vulnerable victims perceive a sense of judgement from society about their losses, further exacerbating emotive and social impacts.

QUESTION 173

Impacts of financial

ANSWER

are common when large financial losses are announced

QUESTION 174

Impacts of reputation

ANSWER

If your site is not available then obviously this has a negative impact on your business. Customers and potential customers can not see your website so you may lose business.

QUESTION 175

Impacts of availability loss

ANSWER

proactive security search through networks, endpoints, and datasets to hunt malicious, suspicious, or risky activities that have evaded detection by existing tools.

QUESTION 176

Threat hunting

ANSWER

a collaborative effort of two or more agencies that provide resources, expertise and information to the center with the goal of maximizing their ability to detect, prevent, investigate, and respond to criminal and terrorist activity.

QUESTION 177

Intelligence fusion

ANSWER

are an actionable threat data associated with indicators or artifacts gathered from third-party vendors to learn from the access and visibility of other organizations to improve your own cybersecurity threat awareness and response.

QUESTION 178

Threat feeds

ANSWER

notify customers about one or more vulnerabilities. Customers are responsible for assessing the impact of any actual or potential security vulnerability in the context of their environment.

QUESTION 179

Advisories and bulletins

ANSWER

the application of force to capture, disrupt, deny, degrade, destroy or manipulate computing and information resources in order to achieve a position of advantage in respect to competitors.

QUESTION 180

Maneuver

ANSWER

an inspection of the potential points of exploit on a computer or network to identify security holes.

QUESTION 181

Vulnerability scans

ANSWER

a test result which incorrectly indicates that a particular condition or attribute is present.

QUESTION 182

False positives

ANSWER

a test result which incorrectly indicates that a particular condition or attribute is absent.

QUESTION 183

False negatives

ANSWER

interpreting and understand computer-generated records called logs

QUESTION 184

Log reviews

ANSWER

- make use of the admin account, do a more thorough check by looking for problems that cannot be seen from the network. -provide a quick view of vulnerabilities by only looking at network services exposed by the host.

QUESTION 185

credentialed vs. non-credentialed (vulnerability scanning)

ANSWER

-attempt to exploit a vulnerability when it is found. -identify a vulnerability and report on it so you can fix it

QUESTION 186

Intrusive vs. non-intrusive (scans)

ANSWER

Technology used to scan applications for potential vulnerabilities and weaknesses.

QUESTION 187

Application vulnerability scanner

ANSWER

automated tools that scan web applications, normally from the outside, to look for security vulnerabilities such as Cross-site scripting, SQL Injection, Command Injection, Path Traversal and insecure server configuration.

QUESTION 188

Web application vulnerability scan

ANSWER

The application of vulnerability scanning to network devices to search for vulnerabilities at the network level.

QUESTION 189

Network vulnerability scanner

ANSWER

a list of publicly disclosed computer security flaws.

QUESTION 190

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)

ANSWER

provides a numerical (0-10) representation of the severity of an information security vulnerability.

QUESTION 191

Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)

ANSWER

an independent review of hardware and software for the purpose of assessing compliance with established performance requirements, commercial and appropriate military standards, and functional, allocated, and product baselines.

QUESTION 192

Configuration review

ANSWER

works by combining two technologies: a) Security information management (SIM), which collects data from log files for analysis and reports on security threats and events, and b) security event management (SEM), which conducts real-time system monitoring, notifies network admins about important issues and establishes correlations between security events.

QUESTION 193

Syslog/security information and event management (SIEM)

ANSWER

provides an independent and in-depth assessment of the ability of an organisation to protect its information assets from the impact of cyber threats.

QUESTION 194

Review reports

ANSWER

a computer networking term for intercepting a data packet that is crossing or moving over a specific computer network.

QUESTION 195

Packet capture

ANSWER

Whenever you enter data into your computer

QUESTION 196

Data inputs

ANSWER

apps launched, network activity, and, most critically files accessed (when the file or email was touched, who touched it, what was done with it and how frequently).

QUESTION 197

User behavior analysis

ANSWER

process of computationally identifying and categorizing opinions expressed in a piece of text, especially in order to determine whether the writer's attitude towards a particular topic, product, etc. is positive, negative, or neutral.

QUESTION 198

Sentiment analysis

ANSWER

the automated process of collecting and analysing indicators of potential security threats, then triaging these threats with appropriate action.

QUESTION 199

Security monitoring

ANSWER

software function that consolidates log data from throughout the IT infrastructure into a single centralized platform where it can be reviewed and analyzed.

QUESTION 200

Log aggregation

ANSWER

store some logging informations, generally in order to send them to a remote location

QUESTION 201

Log Collectors

ANSWER

refers to technologies that enable organizations to collect inputs monitored by the security operations team.

QUESTION 202

Security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR)

ANSWER

network that is known in the test enviroment

QUESTION 203

Known environment

ANSWER

network that is unknown in the test environment

QUESTION 204

Unknown Environment

ANSWER

network has some elements shown in the test enviroment

QUESTION 205

Partially known environment

ANSWER

inform participants of test parameters

QUESTION 206

rules of engagement

ANSWER

technique used by cybercriminals to systematically move through a network in search of data or assets to exfiltrate.

QUESTION 207

Lateral movement

ANSWER

network attack used to obtain unauthorized access to systems within the security perimeter, or sensitive systems, of an organization.

QUESTION 208

Persistence (Penetration testing)

ANSWER

Remove all executable, scripts and temporary file from a compromised system.

QUESTION 209

Cleanup (Penetration testing)

ANSWER

a reward offered to a person who identifies an error or vulnerability in a computer program or system.

QUESTION 210

Bug bounty (Penetration testing)

ANSWER

able to use the compromised host as a bridge to pivot to another network or system that is not directly accessible from the attacking system.

QUESTION 211

Pivoting(Penetration Testing)

ANSWER

An attempt to gain information about targeted computers and networks without actively engaging with the systems. The attacker engages with the target system, typically conducting a port scan to determine find any open ports.

QUESTION 212

Passive and active reconnaissance

ANSWER

preliminary survey to gain information

QUESTION 213

Drones (reconnaissance)

ANSWER

an activity consisting of using an airplane and a Wi-Fi-equipped computer, such as a laptop or a PDA, to detect Wi-Fi wireless networks.

QUESTION 214

War flying

ANSWER

the act of searching for Wi-Fi wireless networks, usually from a moving vehicle, using a laptop or smartphone.

QUESTION 215

War driving

ANSWER

the technique used for gathering information about computer systems and the entities they belong to.

QUESTION 216

Footprinting

ANSWER

open source intelligence, is the practice of collecting information from published or otherwise publicly available sources.

QUESTION 217

OSINT

ANSWER

Red-Team: Blue-Team: White-Team: Purple-Team:

QUESTION 218

Exercise types

ANSWER

The management and control of configurations for an information system with the goal of enabling security and managing risk

QUESTION 219

Configuration management

ANSWER

Network or physical diagrams

QUESTION 220

Diagrams for Configuration management

ANSWER

Standard or normal configuration

QUESTION 221

Baseline configuration

ANSWER

consistent use of a pattern that is easily understoof

QUESTION 222

Standard naming conventions

ANSWER

chart lists what type of device it is, and it gives a range of numbers for the last octet of the IP address of each device

QUESTION 223

Internet protocol (IP) schema

ANSWER

residency ensures that the data stays in the specified geographical location, makes sure that the information is subject to the legal punishments and protections of the country where it is physically stored.

QUESTION 224

Data sovereignty

ANSWER

the process of safeguarding important information from corruption, compromise or loss

QUESTION 225

Data protection

ANSWER

a set of tools and processes used to ensure that sensitive data is not lost, misused, or accessed by unauthorized users.

QUESTION 226

Data loss prevention (DLP)

ANSWER

data ofuscation

QUESTION 227

Masking

ANSWER

method where information is encoded and can only be accessed or decrypted by a user with the correct encryption key

QUESTION 228

Encryption in data protection

ANSWER

aims to secure inactive data stored on any device or network.

QUESTION 229

Data protection: at rest

ANSWER

is data actively moving from one location to another such as across the internet or through a private network.

QUESTION 230

Data protection: In transit/motion

ANSWER

as any operation or set of operations performed upon personal data, whether or not by automatic means, such as collection, recording, organisation, storage, adaptation or alteration, retrieval, consultation, use, disclosure by transmission, dissemination or otherwise making

QUESTION 231

Data protection: In processing

ANSWER

the process of turning a meaningful piece of data, such as an account number, into a random string of characters called a token that has no meaningful value if breached.

QUESTION 232

Data protection: Tokenization

ANSWER

a way to protect copyrights for digital media. This approach includes the use of technologies that limit the copying and use of copyrighted works and proprietary software.

QUESTION 233

Data protection: Rights management

ANSWER

the study of the natural features of the earth's surface, including topography, climate, soil, vegetation, etc., and man's response to them.

QUESTION 234

Geographical considerations

ANSWER

focuses on returning things to normal following a chemical or biological incident. This involves the development of plans, , technologies, capabilities, and tools for remediation.

QUESTION 235

Response and recovery controls

ANSWER

the process of intercepting SSL/TLS encrypted internet communication between the client and server. ... Along with your legitimate information, malicious content could also be hidden in the encrypted traffic.

QUESTION 236

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)/Transport Layer Security (TLS) inspection

ANSWER

is an algorithm performed on data such as a file or message to produce a number

QUESTION 237

Hashing

ANSWER

the protection of network-exposed APIs that your organization both produces and consumes.

QUESTION 238

API considerations

ANSWER

A configuration that extends the messaging infrastructure to multiple Active Directory sites to provide operational continuity for the messaging system in the event of a failure affecting one of the sites.

QUESTION 239

Site resiliency

ANSWER

a commercial disaster recovery service that allows a business to continue computer and network operations in the event of a computer or equipment disaster.

QUESTION 240

Hot site

ANSWER

is essentially office or datacenter space without any server-related equipment installed.

QUESTION 241

Cold Site

ANSWER

a backup facility that has the network connectivity and the necessary hardware equipment already pre-installed.

QUESTION 242

Warm site

ANSWER

technology is a cybersecurity defense practice that aims to deceive attackers by distributing a collection of traps and decoys across a system's infrastructure to imitate genuine assets.

QUESTION 243

Deception and disruption

ANSWER

a controlled and safe environment for showing how attackers work and examining different types of threats.

QUESTION 244

Honeypots

ANSWER

bait files intended for hackers to access.

QUESTION 245

Honeyfiles

ANSWER

a decoy network that contains one or more honeypots

QUESTION 246

Honeynets

ANSWER

fake automated communication processes from multiple data sources.

QUESTION 247

Fake telemetry

ANSWER

provider that supplies systems looking for DNS information with false results, allowing an attacker to redirect a system to a potentially malicious destination.

QUESTION 248

DNS Sinkhole

ANSWER

deployment models: public, private, community, and hybrid.

QUESTION 249

Cloud models

ANSWER

a cloud computing service where enterprises rent or lease servers for compute and storage in the cloud. Users can run any operating system or applications on the rented servers without the maintenance and operating costs of those servers.

QUESTION 250

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

ANSWER

a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, with resources that enable you to deliver everything from simple cloud-based apps to sophisticated, cloud-enabled enterprise applications.

QUESTION 251

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

ANSWER

is a way of delivering applications over the Internet—as a service. ... SaaS applications are sometimes called Web-based software, on-demand software, or hosted software.

QUESTION 252

Software as a Service (SaaS)

ANSWER

describes a general category of services related to cloud computing and remote access. It recognizes the vast number of products, tools, and technologies that are now delivered to users as a service over the internet

QUESTION 253

Anything as a Service (XaaS)

ANSWER

a platform that uses the standard cloud computing model to make resources -- such as virtual machines, applications or storage -- available to users remotely. Public cloud services may be free or offered through a variety of subscription or on-demand pricing schemes, including a pay-per-usage model.

QUESTION 254

Public cloud model

ANSWER

a cloud service model that provides a cloud computing solution to a limited number of individuals or organizations that is governed, managed and secured commonly by all the participating organizations or a third party managed service provider.

QUESTION 255

Community Cloud Model

ANSWER

a computing model that offers a proprietary environment dedicated to a single business entity. As with other types of cloud computing environments, private cloud provides extended, virtualized computing resources via physical components stored on-premises or at a vendor's datacenter.

QUESTION 256

Private cloud model

ANSWER

a solution that combines a private cloud with one or more public cloud services, with proprietary software enabling communication between each distinct service. A hybrid cloud strategy provides businesses with greater flexibility by moving workloads between cloud solutions as needs and costs fluctuate.

QUESTION 257

Hybrid Cloud model

ANSWER

a third-party company offering a cloud-based platform, infrastructure, application or storage services. Much like a homeowner would pay for a utility such as electricity or gas, companies typically have to pay only for the amount of cloud services they use, as business demands require.

QUESTION 258

Cloud service providers

ANSWER

delivers services, such as network, application, infrastructure and security, via ongoing and regular support and active administration on customers' premises, in their MSP's data center (hosting), or in a third-party data center.

QUESTION 259

Managed service provider (MSP)

ANSWER

provides outsourced monitoring and management of security devices and systems. Common services include managed firewall, intrusion detection, virtual private network, vulnerability scanning and anti-viral services.

QUESTION 260

Managed security service provider (MSSP)

ANSWER

a solution hosted in-house and usually supported by a third-party. a solution hosted by a third-party and usually supported by a different third-party.

QUESTION 261

On-premises vs. off-premises

ANSWER

describes a decentralized computing structure located between the cloud and devices that produce data.

QUESTION 262

Fog Computing

ANSWER

a distributed, open IT architecture that features decentralised processing power, enabling mobile computing and Internet of Things (IoT) technologies.

QUESTION 263

Edge Computing

ANSWER

a computer that runs from resources stored on a central server instead of a localized hard drive.

QUESTION 264

Thin Client

ANSWER

sit on top of a physical server and its host OS typically Linux or Windows. shares the host OS kernel and, usually, the binaries and libraries, too.

QUESTION 265

Containers

ANSWER

a small, single service offered by a company. It derives from the distributed computing architecture that connects many small services, rather than having one large service.

QUESTION 266

Microservices/API

ANSWER

the process of managing and provisioning computer data centers through machine-readable definition files, rather than physical hardware configuration or interactive configuration tools.

QUESTION 267

Infrastructure as code

ANSWER

using a central control program separate from network devices to manage the flow of data on a network

QUESTION 268

Software Defined Networking (SDN)

ANSWER

extends the capability of a visibility infrastructure platform so it can tie security tools they can operate collaboratively in an automated way

QUESTION 269

Software-defined visibility

ANSWER

a way to build and run applications and services without having to manage infrastructure. Your application still runs on servers, but all the server management is done by AWS.

QUESTION 270

Serverless architecture

ANSWER

specialized application with a defined interface and structure that acts as a container for a web services solution.

QUESTION 271

Services integration

ANSWER

a system rule that specifies resources and actions for a particular access feature. A resource is either a server or file that can be accessed through the system, and an action is to "allow" or "deny" a resource or to perform or not perform a function.

QUESTION 272

Resource policies

ANSWER

a network transit hub that you can use to interconnect your virtual private clouds (VPCs) and on-premises networks.

QUESTION 273

Transit gateway

ANSWER

technology that lets you create useful IT services using resources that are traditionally bound to hardware. It allows you to use a physical machine's full capacity by distributing its capabilities among many users or environments.

QUESTION 274

Virtualization

ANSWER

happens when an administrator can no longer effectively control and manage all the virtual machines on a network.

QUESTION 275

Virtual machine (VM) sprawl avoidance

ANSWER

a security exploit that enables a hacker/cracker to gain access to the primary hypervisor and its created virtual machines.

QUESTION 276

VM Escape Protection

ANSWER

a collection of procedures and tools for developing, testing and debugging an application or program.

QUESTION 277

Environment development

ANSWER

any space in which software undergoes a series of experimental uses.

QUESTION 278

Environment Test

ANSWER

a nearly exact replica of a production environment for software testing.

QUESTION 279

Environment Staging

ANSWER

the setting where the latest working version of a computer program is installed and made available to end-users.

QUESTION 280

Environment production

ANSWER

a way of preventing mistakes and defects in manufactured products and avoiding problems when delivering products or services to customers; which ISO 9000 defines as "part of quality management focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled".

QUESTION 281

Environment Quality assurance (QA)

ANSWER

Commission/Decommission of assets from the time it is installed, until the time it is decommissioned and disposed.

QUESTION 282

Provisioning and Deprovisioning

ANSWER

being composed of two separable attributes that reflect the intended, desired emergent properties of a system and the minimisation of unintended, undesired emergent properties.

QUESTION 283

Integrity measurement

ANSWER

Techniques used while coding to provide as much security as possible.

QUESTION 284

Secure Coding Techniques

ANSWER

the process of reorganizing data in a database so that it meets two basic requirements: There is no redundancy of data, all data is stored in only one place.

QUESTION 285

Normalization

ANSWER

a set of Structured Query Language (SQL) statements with an assigned name, which are stored in a relational database management system (RDBMS) as a group, so it can be reused and shared by multiple programs.

QUESTION 286

Stored procedures

ANSWER

the deliberate act of creating source or machine code that is difficult for humans to understand. Like obfuscation in natural language, it may use needlessly roundabout expressions to compose statements.

QUESTION 287

Obfuscation/camouflage

ANSWER

reusing code that already exists either within your organization or externally when developing new software. The existing code may be reused to perform the same or very similar function.

QUESTION 288

Code reuse/dead code

ANSWER

validation is mainly used to validate and display form level errors validation is used for field level errors depends on javascript and may be turned off in some browser, which can lead to invalid data saved, while server side validation is very secure

QUESTION 289

Server-Side vs. Client-Side Execution and Validation

ANSWER

function keeps track of the status of each memory location, either allocated or free.

QUESTION 290

Memory management

ANSWER

commonly defined as a set of tools that can be used to create and develop applications.

QUESTION 291

Use of third-party libraries and software development kits (SDKS)

ANSWER

An open community dedicated to enabling organizations to conceive, develop, acquire, operate, and maintain applications that can be trusted.

QUESTION 292

Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP)

ANSWER

a research field about the comprehension and engineering of diversity in the context of software.

QUESTION 293

Software diversity

ANSWER

is a computer program that translates computer code written in one programming language (the source language) into another language (the target language).

QUESTION 294

Compiler

ANSWER

a numeric system that only uses two digits — 0 and 1

QUESTION 295

Binary

ANSWER

the process of using automation software to leverage existing scripts to deliver automation in a managed framework without having to do custom script development and maintenance going forward.

QUESTION 296

Automation/Scripting

ANSWER

Using technology to automate IT processes.

QUESTION 297

Automated Courses of Action

ANSWER

used to detect compliance and risk issues associated with an organization's financial and operational environment.

QUESTION 298

Continuous monitoring

ANSWER

Knowing the state of the system (its current configuration) and ensuring alignment with specifications and user requirements (at all times)

QUESTION 299

Continuous validation

ANSWER

the practice of automating the integration of code changes from multiple contributors into a single software project. It's a primary DevOps best practice, allowing developers to frequently merge code changes into a central repository where builds and tests then run.

QUESTION 300

Continuous integration

ANSWER

a software engineering approach in which teams produce software in short cycles, ensuring that the software can be reliably released at any time and, when releasing the software, without doing so manually.

QUESTION 301

Continuous delivery

ANSWER

a strategy in software development where code changes to an application are released automatically into the production environment.

QUESTION 302

Continuous deployment

ANSWER

is the ability of an IT infrastructure to quickly expand or cut back capacity and services without hindering or jeopardizing the infrastructure's stability, performance, security, governance or compliance protocols.

QUESTION 303

Elasticity

ANSWER

the measure of a system's ability to increase or decrease in performance and cost in response to changes in application and system processing demands.

QUESTION 304

Scalability

ANSWER

is a category of processes and tools designed to keep track of multiple different versions of software, content, documents, websites and other information in development.

QUESTION 305

Version Control

ANSWER

the process of recognizing a user's identity. It is the mechanism of associating an incoming request with a set of identifying credentials. ... Identification phase provides a user identity to the security system. This identity is provided in the form of a user ID.

QUESTION 306

Authentication methods

ANSWER

a group of computing or network providers agreeing upon standards of operation in a collective fashion. The term may be used when describing the inter-operation of two distinct, formally disconnected, telecommunications networks that may have different internal structures.

QUESTION 307

Federation

ANSWER

the process of demonstrating that a piece of software has been properly instantiated on the platform.

QUESTION 308

Attestation

ANSWER

a temporary passcode generated by an algorithm that uses the current time of day as one of its authentication factors.

QUESTION 309

Time-based one-time password (TOTP)

ANSWER

is an event-based OTP where the moving factor in each code is based on a counter. Each time the HOTP is requested and validated, the moving factor is incremented based on a counter.

QUESTION 310

HMAC-based one-time password (HOTP)

ANSWER

the most basic communications technology for mobile data transfer and is characterized by the exchange of short alphanumeric text messages between digital line and mobile devices. SMS messaging's key influential factor is affordability.

QUESTION 311

Short message service (SMS)

ANSWER

a small hardware device that the owner carries to authorize access to a network service.

QUESTION 312

Token key

ANSWER

a method of computer program debugging that is done by examining the code without executing the program.

QUESTION 313

Static codes

ANSWER

the process of recognizing a user's identity. ... The credentials provided are compared to those on a file in a database of the authorized user's information on a local operating system or within an authentication server.

QUESTION 314

Authentication applications

ANSWER

an automated message sent by an application to a user when the application is not open.

QUESTION 315

Push notifications

ANSWER

an instance of speaking to someone on the phone or attempting to contact someone by phone.

QUESTION 316

Phone call

ANSWER

a means of verifying users into enterprise resources such as workstations and applications using a physical card in tandem with a smart card reader and software on the workstation.

QUESTION 317

smart card authentication

ANSWER

a way to measure a person's physical characteristics to verify their identity.

QUESTION 318

Biometrics

ANSWER

the use of technology to identify a person based on some aspect of their biology. Fingerprint recognition is one of the first and original biometric technologies that have been grouped loosely under digital forensics.

QUESTION 319

Fingerprints Biometrics

ANSWER

a biometric technique that uses the unique patterns on a person's retina for person identification. The retina is the layer of blood vessels situated at the back of an eye.

QUESTION 320

Retina Biometrics

ANSWER

an automated method of biometric identification that uses mathematical pattern-recognition techniques on video images of one or both of the irises of an individual's eyes, whose complex patterns are unique, stable, and can be seen from some distance.

QUESTION 321

Iris Biometrics

ANSWER

a way of identifying or confirming an individual's identity using their face. Facial recognition systems can be used to identify people in photos, videos, or in real-time. Facial recognition is a category of biometric security.

QUESTION 322

Facial Biometrics

ANSWER

a technology used to verify a person's identity using their unique vocal attributes. Everyone has different physical and behavioral characteristics that influence the sound of their voice and in combination these are—just like a fingerprint—unique to every individual.

QUESTION 323

Voice Biometrics

ANSWER

a biometric authentication method based on the unique patterns of veins in the palms of people's hands. Palm vein recognition systems, like many other biometric technologies, capture an image of a target, acquire and process image data and compare it to a stored record for that individual.

QUESTION 324

Vein Biometrics

ANSWER

one kind of biometric technology that can be used to monitor people without their cooperation. Some researchers are working on visually-based systems that use video cameras to analyze the movements of each body part—the knee, the foot, the shoulder, and so on.

QUESTION 325

Gait analysis Biometrics

ANSWER

based on several criteria including error rate, false acceptance rate (FAR), identification rate, false reject rate (FRR) and additional biometric system standards.

QUESTION 326

Efficacy rates Biometrics

ANSWER

the percentage of identification instances in which unauthorised persons are incorrectly accepted.

QUESTION 327

False acceptance Biometrics

ANSWER

the percentage of identification instances in which authorised persons are incorrectly rejected.

QUESTION 328

False rejection Biometrics

ANSWER

the point where the false reject rate (FRR) and false accept rate (FAR) are equal.

QUESTION 329

Crossover error rate Biometrics

ANSWER

using two or more different factors to achieve authentication. Factors include: (i) something you know (e.g., password/PIN); (ii) something you have (e.g., cryptographic identification device, token); or (iii) something you are (e.g., biometric).

QUESTION 330

multifactor authentication (MFA) factors and attributes

ANSWER

a system for tracking user activities on an IP-based network and controlling their access to network resources.

QUESTION 331

Factors: - Something you know - Something you have - Something you are

ANSWER

company keeps all of this IT infrastructure managed by a 3rd party company keeps all of this IT infrastructure onsite

QUESTION 332

Attributes: - Somewhere you are - Something you can do - Someone you know

ANSWER

is the duplication of critical components or functions of a system with the intention of increasing reliability of the system, usually in the form of a backup or fail-safe, or to improve actual system performance, such as in the case of GNSS receivers, or multi-threaded computer processing.

QUESTION 333

- Authorization, authorization, and accounting (AAA)

ANSWER

locations or areas that provide greater opportunity for families in terms of education, economic, mobility and transportation, health and environment, and neighborhood quality

QUESTION 334

Cloud vs. on-premises requirements

ANSWER

RAID 0 - striping RAID 1 - mirroring RAID 5 - striping with parity RAID 6 - striping with double parity RAID 10 - combining mirroring and striping

QUESTION 335

Redundancy

ANSWER

is a fault-tolerance and performance-enhancement technique that defines more than one physical path between the CPU in a computer system and its mass-storage devices through the buses, controllers, switches, and bridge devices connecting them.

QUESTION 336

Geographic dispersal

ANSWER

a device that acts as a reverse proxy and distributes network or application traffic across a number of servers.

QUESTION 337

Disk - Redundant array of inexpensive disks (RAID) levels

ANSWER

the process of combining multiple network cards together for performance, load balancing, and redundancy reasons.

QUESTION 338

Multipath

ANSWER

provides battery backup power when the flow of electricity drops to an inadequate voltage, or if it stops

QUESTION 339

Network: Load balancers

ANSWER

appliances that supply electrical power during a power outage and prevent discontinuity of daily activities or disruption of business operations.

QUESTION 340

Network interface card teaming

ANSWER

ensure stable power supply to a device, but it also helps prevent system damage. It allows for multiple usage of power by increasing power output. In short, it ensures regular direct current power supply.

QUESTION 341

Power: Uninterruptible power supply (UPS)

ANSWER

is a device fitted with multiple outputs designed to distribute electric power, especially to racks of computers and networking equipment located within a data center.

QUESTION 342

Power: Generator

ANSWER

duplicate

QUESTION 343

Power: Dual supply

ANSWER

a dedicated, independent high-speed network that interconnects and delivers shared pools of storage devices to multiple servers.

QUESTION 344

Managed power distribution units (PDUS)

ANSWER

an image file managed by the hypervisor that exhibits the behavior of a separate computer, capable of performing tasks such as running applications and programs like a separate computer.

QUESTION 345

Replication

ANSWER

full,incremental,snapshot,differential

QUESTION 346

Storage area network

ANSWER

complete copies of all configured data

QUESTION 347

VM

ANSWER

save resources and time because they backup only the data that changed since the last backup of any kind.

QUESTION 348

On-premises vs. cloud

ANSWER

a set of reference markers for data at a particular point in time

QUESTION 349

Backup types

ANSWER

save resources and time because they backup only the data that changed since the last full backup

QUESTION 350

Backup types: Full

ANSWER

drive is one of the oldest data storage devices which allows for reading and writing data on a magnetic tape

QUESTION 351

Backup types: Incremental

ANSWER

data backup and recovery method that backs data up to hard disk storage

QUESTION 352

Backup types: Snapshot

ANSWER

a backup that copies all selected files but does not mark each file as having been backed up

QUESTION 353

Backup types: Differential

ANSWER

is dedicated file storage that enables multiple users and heterogeneous client devices to retrieve data from centralized disk capacity

QUESTION 354

Backup types: Tape

ANSWER

a dedicated, independent high-speed network that interconnects and delivers shared pools of storage devices to multiple servers. Each server can access shared storage as if it were a drive directly attached to the server.

QUESTION 355

Backup types: Disk

ANSWER

is a service in which the data and applications on a business's servers are backed up and stored on a remote server.

QUESTION 356

Backup types: Copy

ANSWER

entire operating system, including files, executable programs and OS configurations.

QUESTION 357

Backup types: Network-attached storage (NAS)

ANSWER

places your files onto the Spare Backup data servers a backup performed while the database is off-line and unavailable to its users

QUESTION 358

Backup types: Storage area network

ANSWER

good to consider when using an offsite storage solution

QUESTION 359

Backup types: Cloud

ANSWER

a desktop where nothing gets saved at the end of the user session.

QUESTION 360

Backup types: Image

ANSWER

undo the change prior to committing to a known solution

QUESTION 361

Backup types: Online vs. offline

ANSWER

a copy of a system's hardware configuration and driver settings taken from the system's registry when the OS successfully boots.

QUESTION 362

Backup types: Offsite storage- Distance considerations

ANSWER

a complete bootable computer installation including operating system which runs directly from a CD-ROM or similar storage device into a computer's memory, rather than loading from a hard disk drive.

QUESTION 363

Non-persistence

ANSWER

he ability of an application or a system to handle a huge volume of workload or expand in response to an increased demand for database access, processing, networking, or system resources.

QUESTION 364

Revert to known state

ANSWER

maintenance order by which the process of refurbishing damaged equipment or the spare parts of the equipment

QUESTION 365

Last known-good configuration

ANSWER

interact and build strong relationships with a broader range of customers , good vs 0 day attacks

QUESTION 366

Live boot media

ANSWER

Promotes innovation through the introduction of new products, services, and solutions. Provides multiple channels from which to procure goods and services. Drives competition (on price and service levels) between the company's existing and potential vendors

QUESTION 367

High availability (Scalability)

ANSWER

a way of minimising risk and maximising the potential rewards of your portfolio

QUESTION 368

Restoration order

ANSWER

using from different categories...to achieve the same control objective.

QUESTION 369

Diversity: Technologies

ANSWER

Special-purpose software designed and included inside physical products

QUESTION 370

Diversity: Vendors

ANSWER

A low budget, pocket sized computer which is easy to program

QUESTION 371

Diversity: Crypto

ANSWER

Class of PLDs that contain an array of more complex logic cells that can be very flexibly interconnected to implement high-level logic circuits.

QUESTION 372

Diversity: Controls

ANSWER

An open source electronics prototyping platform

QUESTION 373

Embedded systems

ANSWER

used to control geographically dispersed assets, as well as distributed control systems (DCSs) and smaller control systems using programmable logic controllers to control localized processes.

QUESTION 374

Raspberry Pi

ANSWER

implements SCADA

QUESTION 375

Field Programmable Gate Array (FPGA)

ANSWER

implements SCADA

QUESTION 376

Arduino

ANSWER

implements SCADA

QUESTION 377

Supervisory control and date acquisition (SCADA)/industrial control system (ICS)

ANSWER

implements SCADA

QUESTION 378

Facilities

ANSWER

the network of products embedded with connectivity-enabled electronics

QUESTION 379

Industrial

ANSWER

Input devices used to measure physical traits, such as sound, heat, or light.

QUESTION 380

Manufacturing

ANSWER

An electronic device connected to other devices, usually with wireless technology, to exchange data and information.

QUESTION 381

Energy

ANSWER

Devices that may be worn on a person's wrist or incorporated into clothing.

QUESTION 382

Logistics

ANSWER

uses IOT for temperature and air quality

QUESTION 383

Internet of Things (IoT)

ANSWER

downside of IOT

QUESTION 384

Sensors

ANSWER

used in heart monitors, have older OS

QUESTION 385

Smart devices

ANSWER

often seen as the most innovative and technologically advanced of all aircraft a very broad definition, and can apply to any fighter built for a particular purpose.

QUESTION 386

Wearables

ANSWER

digital monitoring of consumption data and its regular transmission to the energy provider, and typically enables bidirectional communication.

QUESTION 387

Facility automation

ANSWER

Uses IP technology to transmit telephone calls

QUESTION 388

Weak defaults

ANSWER

Systems that provide and regulate heating and cooling.

QUESTION 389

Specialized Medical systems

ANSWER

Robotic aircraft, used extensively by the military.

QUESTION 390

Specialized Vehicles

ANSWER

An all-in-one output device that usually combines a scanner, a laser or inkjet printer, and a fax modem.

QUESTION 391

Specialized Aircraft

ANSWER

A program with a specific purpose that must guarantee certain response times for particular computing tasks or else the machine's application is useless. Real-time operating systems are found in many types of robotic equipment.

QUESTION 392

Specialized smart meters

ANSWER

The ongoing and systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health data essential to the planning, implementation, and evaluation of public health practice, closely integrated with the timely dissemination of these data to those who need to know. The final link in the surveillance chain is the application of these data to prevention and control.

QUESTION 393

Voice over IP (VoIP)

ANSWER

A modern microprocessor that contain the CPU, memory, and peripheral interfaces; a miniature computer; an example is the Raspberry Pi.

QUESTION 394

Heating, ventilation, air conditioning (HVAC)

ANSWER

high speed connection for mobile and wifi devices also can allow for more reliable low latency connections as well as energy efficiency and node connection

QUESTION 395

Drones

ANSWER

efers to data communication and telecommunications tools, technologies and services that utilize a narrower set or band of frequencies in the communication channel. These utilize the channel frequency that is considered flat or which will use a lesser number of frequency sets.

QUESTION 396

Multifunction printer (MFP)

ANSWER

Baseband refers to the original frequency range of a transmission signal before it is converted, or modulated, to a different frequency range. When it is transmitted on a radio frequency (RF), it is modulated to a much higher, inaudible, frequency range

QUESTION 397

Real-time operating system (RTOS)

ANSWER

Removable cards in GSM phones that contain information for identifying subscribers. They can also store other information, such as messages and call history.

QUESTION 398

Surveillance systems

ANSWER

A short-range low-power network technology used for the Internet of Things.

QUESTION 399

System on chip (SoC)

ANSWER

not a lot of power can be drawn due to efficiency concern as well as portability

QUESTION 400

Communication considerations: 5G

ANSWER

high end chips cannot be used without adequate cooling and power draw

QUESTION 401

Communication considerations: Narrow-band

ANSWER

due to the nature of wifi the connection itself is not very secure and is volatile

QUESTION 402

Communication considerations: Baseband radio

ANSWER

cannot be changed cannot be patched

QUESTION 403

Subscriber identity module (SIM) cards

ANSWER

have massive security flaws due to lack of support and no feature implementations

QUESTION 404

Zigbee

ANSWER

limited options no multifactor

QUESTION 405

Constraints: Power

ANSWER

range dependent on equipment used for connection 5g is strong but not as far as satellite but satellite has less data transfer and large amount of latency

QUESTION 406

Constraints: Compute

ANSWER

only serves a single purpose; low cost

QUESTION 407

Constraints: Network

ANSWER

limited access hard to verify trust.

QUESTION 408

Constraints: Crypto

ANSWER

used to block paths

QUESTION 409

Constraints: Inability to patch

ANSWER

secured spaces with two of more sets of doors and an office sign-in area.

QUESTION 410

Constraints: Authentication

ANSWER

gives access to mantraps

QUESTION 411

Constraints: Range

ANSWER

doors, windows, fences motion detect

QUESTION 412

Constraints: Cost

ANSWER

signs collectively, especially commercial or public display signs.

QUESTION 413

Constraints: Implied trust

ANSWER

device for recording visual images in the form of photographs, film, or video signals.

QUESTION 414

Bollards/barricades

ANSWER

to recognize the physical movement of an object in a given place or region. By acting segmentation among moving objects and stationary area or region, the moving objects motion could be tracked and thus could be analyzed later

QUESTION 415

Access control vestibules

ANSWER

Video cameras and receivers used for surveillance in areas that require security monitoring.

QUESTION 416

Badges

ANSWER

camouflage in plain sight that looks like a normal building

QUESTION 417

Alarms

ANSWER

Guards: Robot sentries: Reception: Two-person integrity/control

QUESTION 418

Signage

ANSWER

Biometrics: Electronic: Physical: Cable Locks:

QUESTION 419

Cameras

ANSWER

device that plugs into the charging port on your phone, acting as a shield between the public charging station's cord and your phone.

QUESTION 420

Motion recognition and object detection

ANSWER

camras can see better also provides a barrier

QUESTION 421

closed circuit television (CCTV)

ANSWER

smoke detector, stops fire

QUESTION 422

Industrial camouflage

ANSWER

identify movement

QUESTION 423

Personnel

ANSWER

changes in noise

QUESTION 424

Locks

ANSWER

access doors, door locks

QUESTION 425

USB data blocker

ANSWER

water leaks

QUESTION 426

Lighting and fencing

ANSWER

card reader

QUESTION 427

Fire suppression

ANSWER

temperature change over time

QUESTION 428

Sensors: Motion detection

ANSWER

quick large area video coverage

QUESTION 429

Sensors: Noise detection

ANSWER

tracks personel

QUESTION 430

Sensors: Proximity Reader

ANSWER

blocks electromagnetic fields

QUESTION 431

Sensors: Moisture detection

ANSWER

no physical connection

QUESTION 432

Sensors: Cards

ANSWER

a network architecture that uses a single firewall with three network interfaces. Interface 1 is the public interface and connects to the Internet. Interface 2 connects to a DMZ (demilitarized zone) to which hosted public services are attached.

QUESTION 433

Sensors: Temperature

ANSWER

prevents cable cuts

QUESTION 434

Visitor logs

ANSWER

physical separation of a network

QUESTION 435

Faraday cages

ANSWER

reinforced room, expensive

QUESTION 436

Air gap

ANSWER

similar to vault, smaller

QUESTION 437

Screened subnet

ANSWER

allows the network operator to establish trust boundaries in accessing the management function to apply it to network resources. It also can be used to ensure management connectivity (including the ability to determine the status of any network component) independent of the status of other in-band network components.

QUESTION 438

Protected cable distribution

ANSWER

where air is drawn in from a server room

QUESTION 439

Secure areas

ANSWER

Burning: Shredding: Pulping: Pulverizing: Degaussing: Third-party solutions :

QUESTION 440

Secure areas: Air Gap

ANSWER

authentication; non-reputable

QUESTION 441

Secure areas: Vault

ANSWER

important for hashing strength

QUESTION 442

Secure areas: Safe

ANSWER

increasing key size; hashing

QUESTION 443

Secure areas: Hot aisle

ANSWER

adding random hash to product hash

QUESTION 444

Secure areas: Cold aisle

ANSWER

transforming plaintext of any length into a short code called a hash

QUESTION 445

Secure data destruction

ANSWER

The process of sending and receiving secure cryptographic keys.

QUESTION 446

Digital signatures:

ANSWER

An algorithm that uses elliptic curves instead of prime numbers to compute keys.

QUESTION 447

Key length

ANSWER

hash has nothing revealed in transfer

QUESTION 448

Key stretching

ANSWER

is a field of applied quantum physics closely related to quantum information processing and quantum teleportation. Its most interesting application is protecting information channels against eavesdropping by means of quantum cryptography.

QUESTION 449

Salting

ANSWER

uses the principles of quantum physics to represent data and perform operations on these data

QUESTION 450

Key exchange

ANSWER

temporary keys

QUESTION 451

Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC)

ANSWER

Authenticated: Unauthenticated: Counter:

QUESTION 452

Perfect forward secrecy

ANSWER

Stream: Block:

QUESTION 453

Quantum communication

ANSWER

Audio: Video: Image:

QUESTION 454

Quantum computing

ANSWER

Enables processing of encrypted data without the need to decrypt the data. It allows the cloud customer to upload data to a cloud service provider for processing without the requirement to decipher the data first.

QUESTION 455

Post-quantum

ANSWER

Modern malware tries to hide itself. Encrypted data hides the active malware code. Decryption occurs during execution.

QUESTION 456

Ephemeral

ANSWER

Password hashing. Protect the original password. Add salts to randomize the stored password hash.

QUESTION 457

Modes of operation

ANSWER

Confirm the authenticity of data. Digital signature provides both integrity and non-repudiation.

QUESTION 458

Blockchain and public ledgers

ANSWER

hashing takes a large amount of computing power and can only be done at a certain speed

QUESTION 459

Cipher Suites

ANSWER

the larger the size the more secure but also much harder and longer to process and store

QUESTION 460

Symmetric vs. asymmetric

ANSWER

small keys are easily to brute force

QUESTION 461

Lightweight cryptography

ANSWER

larger keys are very time consuming

QUESTION 462

Steganography

ANSWER

keys become less secure over time as new technologies emerge

QUESTION 463

Homomorphic Encryption

ANSWER

the actual hashing process is not random; everything has a pattern

QUESTION 464

Common use cases

ANSWER

reusing reduced complexity and security of the key

QUESTION 465

Low power devices

ANSWER

nothing is random

QUESTION 466

Low latency

ANSWER

takes much longer time and computing power the larger the hash

QUESTION 467

High resiliency

ANSWER

hard to do must be both effective and not time consuming

QUESTION 468

Supporting confidentiality

ANSWER

a set of rules or procedures for transmitting data between electronic devices, such as computers

QUESTION 469

Supporting integrity

ANSWER

uses public key and cryptography

QUESTION 470

Supporting Obfuscation

ANSWER

uses encryption with terminal remote access

QUESTION 471

Supporting Authentication

ANSWER

used in mail servers for encryptions of mail

QUESTION 472

Supporting Non-Repudiation

ANSWER

uses AES encryption

QUESTION 473

Limitations: Speed

ANSWER

uses SSL for secure use of looking through directories and organized sets

QUESTION 474

Limitations: Size

ANSWER

A secure version of the File Transfer Protocol optimized for file transfers. It uses SSL or TLS for security and uses port 990 or 21.

QUESTION 475

Limitations: Weak keys

ANSWER

One method for sending FTP traffic over a Secure Shell (SSH) session using native SSH commands and methods. Note that this is not the same thing as tunneling regular FTP traffic over SSH (referred to as FTP over SSH, which is called Secure FTP).

QUESTION 476

Limitations: Time

ANSWER

used in HTTPS connections

QUESTION 477

Limitations: Longevity

ANSWER

A protocol for transfer of material across the Internet that contains links to additional material that is carried over a secure tunnel via SSL or TLS.

QUESTION 478

Limitations: Predictability

ANSWER

used in layer 3 authentication and encryption

QUESTION 479

Limitations: Reuse

ANSWER

integrity in packet creation

QUESTION 480

Limitations: Entropy

ANSWER

a communications protocol that allows for the movement of data from one network to another

QUESTION 481

Limitations: Computational overheads

ANSWER

used in mail receiving from a remote server to a local email client.

QUESTION 482

Limitations: Resource vs. security constraints

ANSWER

the interactions between the "actor" and the system.

QUESTION 483

Protocols

ANSWER

VOIP,HTTPS

QUESTION 484

Domain Name System security extension (DNSSEC)

ANSWER

NTP

QUESTION 485

SSH

ANSWER

POP, IMAP, MIME

QUESTION 486

Secure/multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME)

ANSWER

HTTPS, FTP

QUESTION 487

Secure Real-time Protocol (SRTP)

ANSWER

LDAPS

QUESTION 488

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol over TLS/SSL (LDAPS)

ANSWER

SSH

QUESTION 489

File Transfer Protocol Secure (FTPS)

ANSWER

DNS

QUESTION 490

SSH File Transfer Protocol (SFTP)

ANSWER

SSH, SNMPv3,,HTTPS

QUESTION 491

Simple Network Management Protocol, version 3 (SNMPv3)

ANSWER

DHCP

QUESTION 492

Hypertext transfer protocol over SSL/TLS (HTTPS)

ANSWER

Antivirus/Anti malware

QUESTION 493

IPSec

ANSWER

antivirus software (looks more holistically at everything that is necessary to protect)

QUESTION 494

Authentication header (AH)/Encapsulating Security Payloads (ESP)

ANSWER

software that is specifically designed to detect viruses and protect a computer and files from harm

QUESTION 495

Tunnel/transport

ANSWER

software that prevents attacks by a wide range of destructive, malicious, or intrusive programs

QUESTION 496

Secure Post Office Protocol (POP)/ Internet Message Protocol (IMAP)

ANSWER

a system to gather and analyze security threat-related information from computer workstations and other endpoints, with the goal of finding security breaches as they happen and facilitating a quick response to discovered or potential threats.

QUESTION 497

Use cases

ANSWER

email, cloud storage

QUESTION 498

Voice and video

ANSWER

allow/deny app features, prevents url access

QUESTION 499

Time synchronization

ANSWER

block known attacks, secure OS

QUESTION 500

Email and web

ANSWER

A system that looks for computer intrusions by monitoring activity on one or more individual PCs or servers.

QUESTION 501

File transfer

ANSWER

A firewall that only protects the computer on which it's installed.

QUESTION 502

Directory services

ANSWER

chapter provides an introduction to the concept of roots of trust in a trusted computing platform, the measured boot process, and the attestation that are critical steps

QUESTION 503

Remote access

ANSWER

specification that defines a software interface between an operating system and platform firmware can support remote diagnostics and repair of computers, even with no operating system installed.

QUESTION 504

Domain Name resolution

ANSWER

A UEFI firmware feature that logs the startup process. Antimalware software can analyze this to log to determine if malware is on the computer or or if the boot components were tampered with.

QUESTION 505

Routing and switching

ANSWER

software integrity measurements are immediately committed to during boot, thus relaxing the traditional requirement for secure storage and reporting.

QUESTION 506

Network address allocation

ANSWER

the process of turning a meaningful piece of data, such as an account number, into a random string of characters called a token that has no meaningful value if breached.

QUESTION 507

Subscription services

ANSWER

A cryptographic salt is made up of random bits added to each password instance before its hashing. Salts create unique passwords even in the instance of two users choosing the same passwords.

QUESTION 508

Endpoint protection

ANSWER

a technique to directly search the location of desired data on the disk without using index structure. Used to index and retrieve items in a database as it is faster to search that specific item using the shorter hashed key instead of using its original value.

QUESTION 509

Antivirus

ANSWER

the process of developing, adding, and testing security features within applications to prevent security vulnerabilities against threats such as unauthorized access and modification.

QUESTION 510

Anti-malware

ANSWER

the process of testing input received by the application for compliance against a standard defined within the application. It can be as simple as strictly typing a parameter and as complex as using regular expressions or business logic to validate input.

QUESTION 511

Endpoint detection and response (EDR)

ANSWER

attribute is sent to the server only with an encrypted request over the HTTPS protocol, never with unsecured HTTP (except on localhost), and therefore can't easily be accessed by a man-in-the-middle attacker.

QUESTION 512

DLP

ANSWER

let the client and the server pass additional information with an HTTP request or response

QUESTION 513

Next-generation firewall (NGFW)

ANSWER

confirms who the author of the software is and proves that the code has not been altered or tampered with after it was signed.

QUESTION 514

Host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS)

ANSWER

entries allowed through a firewall

QUESTION 515

Host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS)

ANSWER

entries not allowed through a firewall

QUESTION 516

Host-based firewall

ANSWER

helps to mitigate the vulnerabilities and risks associated with the software product development process.

QUESTION 517

Boot integrity

ANSWER

Manuel code review: a method of debugging by examining source code before a program is run. It's done by analyzing a set of code against a set (or multiple sets) of coding rules.

QUESTION 518

Boot security/ Unified Extensible Firmware Interface(UEFI)

ANSWER

the method of debugging by examining an application during or after a program is run.

QUESTION 519

Measured boot

ANSWER

an automated software testing technique that attempts to find hackable software bugs by randomly feeding invalid and unexpected inputs and data into a computer program in order to find coding errors and security loopholes.

QUESTION 520

Boot attestation

ANSWER

is usually the process of securing a system by reducing its surface of vulnerability, which is larger when a system performs more functions; in principle a single-function system is more secure than a multipurpose one.

QUESTION 521

Database Tokenization

ANSWER

is used to mean a TCP or UDP port number that is configured to accept packets. web pages or FTP, require their respective ports to be "open" on the server in order to be publicly reachable.

QUESTION 522

Database salting

ANSWER

a database of settings used by Microsoft Windows. It stores configurations for hardware devices, installed applications, and the Windows operating system.

QUESTION 523

Database hashing

ANSWER

Best protection against data compromise in the event of physical theft of the device.

QUESTION 524

Application security

ANSWER

software that supports a computer's basic functions, such as scheduling tasks, executing applications, and controlling peripherals.

QUESTION 525

Input validations

ANSWER

Third-party updates: Auto-update:

QUESTION 526

Secure cookies

ANSWER

Opal: a set of specifications for features of data storage devices (such as disk drives) that enhance their security.

QUESTION 527

Hypertext transfer Protocol (HTTP) headers

ANSWER

the foundation on which all secure operations of a computing system depend.

QUESTION 528

Code signing

ANSWER

everybody's certificate is issued by a third party called Certificate Authority (CA) these CAs may issue certificates themselves, or they may issue certificates that are used to issue certificates down some chain. The whole structure is like a trust tree.

QUESTION 529

Allow list

ANSWER

A form of software virtualization that lets programs and processes run in their own isolated virtual environment

QUESTION 530

Block list/ deny list

ANSWER

as the methodical and efficient distribution of network or application traffic across multiple servers in a server farm. Each sits between client devices and backend servers, receiving and then distributing incoming requests to any available server capable of fulfilling them.

QUESTION 531

Secure coding practices

ANSWER

cluster is typically made up of at least two nodes, both actively running the same kind of service simultaneously to achieve load balancing .

QUESTION 532

Static code analysis

ANSWER

not all nodes are going to be active the first node is already active, the second node must be passive or on standby.

QUESTION 533

Dynamic code analysis

ANSWER

nodes that take turns load balancing

QUESTION 534

Fuzzing

ANSWER

farm cluster address is required to load balance clients requests and to reroute clients in case of failover.

QUESTION 535

Hardening

ANSWER

a process in which a load balancer creates an affinity between a client and a specific network server for the duration of a session

QUESTION 536

Open ports and services

ANSWER

is an architectural approach that divides a network into multiple segments or subnets, each acting as its own small network. This allows network administrators to control the flow of traffic between subnets based on granular policies.

QUESTION 537

Registry

ANSWER

allows different computers and devices to be connected virtually to each other as if they were in a LAN sharing a single broadcast domain ; helpful for organizational use mainly because it can be used to segment a larger network into smaller segments.

QUESTION 538

Disk encryption

ANSWER

also known as DMZ; commonly uses two firewalls; one between public network and DMZ; other resides between the DMZ and the private network

QUESTION 539

OS

ANSWER

denotes a direction of traffic flow within a data center

QUESTION 540

Patch management

ANSWER

an intranet that can be partially accessed by authorized outside users, enabling businesses to exchange information over the internet securely.

QUESTION 541

Self-encrypting drive (SED)/ full disk encryption (FDE)

ANSWER

a network designed for the exclusive use of computer users within an organization that cannot be accessed by users outside the organization

QUESTION 542

Hardware root of trust

ANSWER

a security concept centered on the belief that organizations should not automatically trust anything inside or outside its perimeters and instead must verify anything and everything trying to connect to its systems before granting access.

QUESTION 543

Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

ANSWER

a solution that allows a client to automatically establish a VPN connection without any user interaction.

QUESTION 544

Sandboxing

ANSWER

sending part of your traffic through a VPN and part of it through the open network. using your VPN for all your traffic,

QUESTION 545

Load balancing:

ANSWER

Individual users are connected to the private network and It allows the technique to access the services and resources of that private network remotely IPsec security method is used to create an encrypted tunnel from one customer network to remote site of the customer

QUESTION 546

Load balancing: Active/active

ANSWER

a group of protocols that are used together to set up encrypted connections between devices. It helps keep data sent over public networks secure.

QUESTION 547

Load balancing: Active/passive

ANSWER

enables individual users to access an organization's network, client-server applications, and internal network utilities and directories without the need for specialized software.

QUESTION 548

Load balancing: Scheduling

ANSWER

Portal allows you to provide this without needing to expose the server directly to the Internet or allowing traditional VPN connections. Essentially the UTM proxies your shell session

QUESTION 549

Load balancing: Virtual IP

ANSWER

a standard protocol for tunneling L2 traffic over an IP network. Its ability to carry almost any L2 data format over IP or other L3 networks makes it particularly useful.

QUESTION 550

Load balancing: Persistence

ANSWER

the phonebook of the Internet. Humans access information online through domain names, like nytimes.com or espn.com.

QUESTION 551

Network segmentation

ANSWER

a computer networking solution that uses a set of protocols to define and implement a policy that describes how to secure access to network nodes by devices when they initially attempt to access the network.

QUESTION 552

Virtual local area network (VLAN)

ANSWER

persistent agent lives on the end station, where it performs authentication and compliance checking before allowing network access. not installed on the clients and are often used to inspect employee-owned mobile devices. ... However, management wants to ensure that mobile devices meet minimum standards for security before they can access any network resources.

QUESTION 553

East-west traffic

ANSWER

is part of a broader definition concerning maritime security. It refers to the defense, law and treaty enforcement, and counterterrorism activities that fall within the port and maritime domain.

QUESTION 554

Extranet

ANSWER

a feature of many managed switches in which the switch intentionally ceases to forward all broadcast traffic if the bandwidth consumed by incoming broadcast frames exceeds a designated threshold.

QUESTION 555

Intranet

ANSWER

message transmitted across a local area network to detect loops in network topologies guard functionality prevents malicious attacks on edge ports.

QUESTION 556

Zero Trust

ANSWER

A method of preventing switching loop or bridge loop problems. Both STP and RSTP prevent switching loops.

QUESTION 557

VPN: Always-on

ANSWER

feature provides network protection from rogue DHCP servers. It creates a logical firewall between untrusted hosts and DHCP servers. In addition, the switch uses this table to identify and filter untrusted messages from the network.

QUESTION 558

VPN: Spilt tunnel vs.full tunnel

ANSWER

The method to secure a network by limiting which devices are allowed to connect to a network based on a list of MAC addresses kept by the wireless access points.

QUESTION 559

VPN: Remote access vs. site-to-site

ANSWER

computing appliance that aids in the flow of information to other network-connected computing devices. Services that may be provided include firewall functions, caching, authentication, network address translation and IP address management.

QUESTION 560

VPN: IPSec

ANSWER

used to access and manage devices in a separate security zone; hardened and monitored device that spans two dissimilar security zones and provides a controlled means of access between them.

QUESTION 561

VPN: SSL/TLS

ANSWER

server application or appliance that acts as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from servers that provide those resources. Forward: provides proxy services to a client or a group of clients. Reverse: routes traffic on behalf of multiple servers verse proxy effectively serves as a gateway between clients, users, and application servers.

QUESTION 562

VPN: HTML5

ANSWER

NIDS: detects malicious traffic on a network. NIDS usually require promiscuous network access in order to analyze all traffic, including all unicast traffic. NIPS: are the network security appliances or applications that monitor the network traffic comprising network segments or devices, and analyze the network and the protocol activities for any suspicious activities.

QUESTION 563

VPN: Layer 2 tunneling protocol (L2TP)

ANSWER

involves your antivirus having a predefined repository of static signatures (fingerprints) that represent known network threats.

QUESTION 564

DNS

ANSWER

determines the susceptibility of a system towards particular threat/risk using various decision rules or weighing methods commonly uses A.I

QUESTION 565

Network access control (NAC)

ANSWER

inline sensor is inserted into a network segment so that the traffic that it is monitoring must pass through the sensor. A passive sensor monitors a copy of network traffic; the actual traffic does not pass through the device

QUESTION 566

NAC: Agent and agentless

ANSWER

s a physical device that provides extra security for sensitive data. This type of device is used to provision cryptographic keys for critical functions such as encryption, decryption and authentication for the use of applications, identities and databases.

QUESTION 567

Out-of-band management

ANSWER

Syslogs,IPS,firewalls

QUESTION 568

Port security

ANSWER

gathers together materials from a variety of sources

QUESTION 569

Broadcast storm prevention

ANSWER

hardware, software, or both designed to prevent unauthorized persons from accessing electronic information

QUESTION 570

Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) guard

ANSWER

A firewall that operates at the application level, specifically designed to protect web applications by examining requests at the application stack level.

QUESTION 571

Loop prevention

ANSWER

delivers comprehensive, unified policy management of firewall functions, application control, threat prevention, and advanced malware protection from the network to the endpoint.

QUESTION 572

Dynamic Host configuration Protocol (DHCP) snooping

ANSWER

is a network-based firewall that individually tracks sessions of network connections traversing it also referred to as dynamic packet filtering, is a security feature often used in non-commercial and business networks

QUESTION 573

Media access control (MAC) filtering

ANSWER

designed to protect networks based on static information such as source and destination.

QUESTION 574

Network appliances

ANSWER

a simple code that can be attached to any URL to generate Google Analytics data for digital campaigns.

QUESTION 575

Network appliances: Jump servers

ANSWER

NAT gateway gives cloud resources without public IP addresses access to the internet without exposing those resources to incoming internet connections

QUESTION 576

Network appliances: Proxy servers

ANSWER

limits access by comparing web traffic against a database to prevent employees from accessing harmful sites such as phishing pages.

QUESTION 577

Network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS)/network-based intrusion prevention system (NIPS)

ANSWER

open-source has large amount of functionality for the money proprietary have higher control and higher speeds

QUESTION 578

Signature-based

ANSWER

hardware is purpose built so is very good as specific function software is much more flexible and has many features but not as detailed

QUESTION 579

Heuristic/behavior

ANSWER

application firewall is a type of firewall that governs traffic to, from, or by an application or service use a series of configured policies to determine whether to block or allow communications to or from an app. firewall software that runs on an individual computer or device connected to a network. virtual firewall is a firewall device or service that provides network traffic filtering and monitoring for virtual machines (VMs) in a virtualized environment. Like a traditional network firewall, a virtual firewall inspects packets and uses security policy rules to block unapproved communication between VMs.

QUESTION 580

Anomaly

ANSWER

a collection of permit and deny conditions, called rules, that provide security by blocking unauthorized users and allowing authorized users to access specific resources.

QUESTION 581

Inline vs. passive

ANSWER

Securing routing operation from attacks in a network by deploying appropriate defense

QUESTION 582

HSM

ANSWER

a set of technologies that work on a network to guarantee its ability to dependably run high-priority applications and traffic under limited network capacity.

QUESTION 583

Collectors

ANSWER

reduces the size of routing tables and makes routing more efficient and hierarchical; contains no IP-level checksum, so the checksum does not need to be recalculated at every router hop

QUESTION 584

Aggregators

ANSWER

the network switch ability to send a copy of network data packets being transmitted over a switch port to a network monitoring or inspection device that is itself connected to the port mirror Port taps:two most common ways of accessing monitoring data are through either a switched port analyzer (SPAN) port or a test access port (Tap). A tap is a purpose-built device that passively makes a copy of network data but does not alter the data. Once you install it, you are done. No programming is required.

QUESTION 585

Firewalls

ANSWER

Reviewing the services the client receives, the conditions that may have changed since planning, and progress toward the goals and objectives of the plan offers security checks and fast response times

QUESTION 586

Web application firewall (WAF)

ANSWER

performs the act of validating the integrity of operating system and application software files using a verification method between the current file state and a known, good baseline.

QUESTION 587

NGFW

ANSWER

Protocols meant to ensure security via encryption and cryptography.

QUESTION 588

Stateful

ANSWER

-improved version of WPA -supports robust encryption (government grade security) -can be enabled with password authentication or server authentication

QUESTION 589

Stateless

ANSWER

-improved version of WPA2 -provides improvements to the general Wi-Fi encryption, Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) replaces the Pre-Shared Key (PSK) -more individualized. Users on the Personal network can't snoop on another's Personal traffic -Wi-Fi Easy Connect replacing WPS

QUESTION 590

Unified threat management (UTM)

ANSWER

Uses AES w/128 bit keys uses CCM that combines CTR mode for data confidentiality and CBC-MAC for authentication and integrity replaces TKIP

QUESTION 591

Network address translation (NAT) gateway

ANSWER

an password based authentication and key establishment protocol initially introduced in IEEE 802.11s for mesh networks.

QUESTION 592

Firewalls: Content/URL filter

ANSWER

EAP, PEAP, EAP-FAST, EAP-TLS, EAP-TTLS,IEEE 802.1X, Radius

QUESTION 593

Firewalls: Open-source vs. proprietary

ANSWER

is a protocol for wireless networks that expands the authentication methods used by the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), a protocol often used when connecting a computer to the internet. ... It provides the framework within which the various authentication methods work.

QUESTION 594

Firewalls: Hardware vs. software

ANSWER

is a protocol that encapsulates the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) within an encrypted and authenticated Transport Layer Security (TLS) tunnel.

QUESTION 595

Firewalls: Appliance vs. host-based vs. virtual

ANSWER

uses a two-phase tunneled authentication process. In the first phase of authentication, employs the TLS handshake to provide an authenticated key exchange and to establish a protected tunnel between the client and the authentication server.

QUESTION 596

Access control list (ACL)

ANSWER

Uses PKI, requiring both server-side and client-side certificates.

QUESTION 597

Route security

ANSWER

Simplifies EAP-TLS by dropping the client-side certificate requirement.

QUESTION 598

Quality of service (QoS)

ANSWER

Supplicant (e.g., client software); Authenticator (e.g., access point); Authentication server (e.g., a RADIUS/AAA server)

QUESTION 599

Implications of IPv6

ANSWER

is a client/server protocol and software that enables remote access servers to communicate with a central server to authenticate dial-in users and authorize their access to the requested system or service.

QUESTION 600

Port spanning/port mirroring

ANSWER

pre-shared key vs enterprise vs open, WPS, Captive portals

QUESTION 601

Monitoring services

ANSWER

a client authentication method that uses a string of 64 hexadecimal digits, or as a passphrase of 8 to 63 printable ASCII characters, to generate unique encryption keys for each wireless client. VS WPA2 Enterprise uses IEEE 802.1X VS WiFi that is not password protected Sometimes the WiFi turns out to be a captive portal

QUESTION 602

File integrity monitors

ANSWER

An automated setup feature supported by most current 802.11 wireless access points.

QUESTION 603

Cryptographic protocols

ANSWER

refers to a specific technique of using an HTTP client to handle authentication on a wireless network. Frequently employed in public hot spots, this opens a web browser to an authentication page. This occurs before the user is granted admission to the network. The access point uses this simple mechanism by intercepting all packets and returning the web page for login. The actual web server that serves up the authentication page that can be in a walled-off section of the network, blocking access to the Internet until the user successfully authenticates.

QUESTION 604

Wifi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)

ANSWER

Site Surveys, Heat Maps, Wifi Analyzers, Channel Overlay, WAP, Controller and access point security

QUESTION 605

Wifi Protected Access 3 (WPA3)

ANSWER

survey of wireless landscape often uses heat maps

QUESTION 606

Counter-mode/CBC-MAC protocol (CCMP)

ANSWER

identifies wifi signal strength

QUESTION 607

Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE)

ANSWER

useful software application that can tell you many things about your wireless network and the networks around you, helping you optimize your WiFi for best performance.

QUESTION 608

Authentication protocols

ANSWER

can cause frequency conflicts, are used (2-5, 7-10 in 2.4GHz), any stations (STAs) on those channels will transmit independent of what is happening on the other channels, causing a degradation of performance.

QUESTION 609

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

ANSWER

important for wifi connection efficiency, test signal strength, and avoid overlapping

QUESTION 610

Protected Extensible Application Protocol (PEAP)

ANSWER

connects multiple wireless devices together in a single wireless network. Access point supports both type of standards; Ethernet and Wi-Fi. To extend the coverage area, multiple access points are used together under a Wireless LAN Controller.

QUESTION 611

EAP-FAST

ANSWER

cellular, wifi, bluetooth , nfc , infrared, USB, point-to-point, point-to-multipoint, GPS, RFID

QUESTION 612

EAP-TLS

ANSWER

Uses antenna for connection, has security problems

QUESTION 613

EAP-TTLS

ANSWER

connection uses a WAP, sec problems

QUESTION 614

IEEE 802.1X

ANSWER

connection is highspeed and uses PAN

QUESTION 615

Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS) Federation

ANSWER

connection uses 2 way WIFI, known to jam, short length, PAN

QUESTION 616

Methods

ANSWER

connection uses wifi to specific locations

QUESTION 617

Pre-shared key (PSK) vs. Enterprise vs. Open

ANSWER

connection uses wifi to multiple locations

QUESTION 618

Wifi Protected Setup (WPS)

ANSWER

connection uses satellites, inaccurate, sec issues

QUESTION 619

Captive portals (methods)

ANSWER

connection is a wireless non-contact use of radio frequency waves to transfer data no battery until signal is sent

QUESTION 620

Installation considerations:

ANSWER

remotely controls smartphones and tablets, ensuring data security

QUESTION 621

Site surveys

ANSWER

refers to the suite of Intune management features that lets you publish, push, configure, secure, monitor, and update mobile apps for your users

QUESTION 622

Heat maps

ANSWER

a part of most mobile device management (MDM) solutions that provides secure access to corporate resources such as documents and media files on any mobile device such as smartphones, tablets and laptops.

QUESTION 623

Wifi analyzers

ANSWER

useful security feature of mobile device management. It totally erases the device's memory, in case the device gets lost or stolen

QUESTION 624

Channel overlaps

ANSWER

the use of GPS or RFID technology to create a virtual geographic boundary, enabling software to trigger a response when a mobile device enters or leaves a particular area.

QUESTION 625

Wireless access point (WAP) placement

ANSWER

the process or technique of identifying the geographical location of a person or device by means of digital information processed via the internet.

QUESTION 626

Controller and access point security

ANSWER

graphical user interface displayed by a device (such as a computer or smartphone) that prevents access to most functions of the device until a certain action (such as swiping one's finger across the screen or entering a predetermined code) is performed

QUESTION 627

Connection methods and receivers:

ANSWER

automated message sent by an application to a user when the application is not open.

QUESTION 628

Connection methods and receivers: Cellular

ANSWER

an arbitrary string of characters including letters, digits, or other symbols. If the permissible characters are constrained to be numeric, the corresponding secret is sometimes called a personal identification number

QUESTION 629

Connection methods and receivers: Wifi

ANSWER

refers to security processes that verify a user's identity through unique biological traits such as retinas, irises, voices, facial characteristics, and fingerprints

QUESTION 630

Connection methods and receivers: Bluetooth

ANSWER

the use of situational information (such as identity, geolocation, time of day or type of endpoint device) to improve information security decisions.

QUESTION 631

Connection methods and receivers: NFC

ANSWER

defined as a form of operating system virtualization, through which applications are run in isolated user spaces called containers, all using the same shared operating system

QUESTION 632

Connection methods and receivers: Point-to-point

ANSWER

method used to isolate data on mobile devices. It allows personal data to be stored in one location and encrypted corporate data to be stored elsewhere.

QUESTION 633

Connection methods and receivers: Point-to-multipoint

ANSWER

the process of encoding all user data on an Android device using an encrypted key

QUESTION 634

Connection methods and receivers: GPS

ANSWER

is a hardware security module coming in the form of a microSD card. It provides security services driven by hardware-based crypto engines, including encryption, key generation and key life cycle management, digital signature, authentication and other cryptographic functions.

QUESTION 635

Connection methods and receivers: RFID

ANSWER

manage devices across a variety of platforms, theoretically, at least, making it easier to lockdown hardware and protect critical data

QUESTION 636

Mobile device management (MDM)

ANSWER

refers to the management of the complete lifecycle of every app used in an enterprise. ... It also includes defining app policies that includes restrictions pertaining to the apps and data stored on the apps.

QUESTION 637

MDM: Application management

ANSWER

Security Enhancements for Android, a security solution for Android that identifies and addresses critical gaps.

QUESTION 638

MDM: Content management

ANSWER

stores have some sort of regulation for the apps but the user still does not know what is being done or what can be done with the software

QUESTION 639

MDM: Remote wipe

ANSWER

the process of removing the limitations put in place by a device's manufacturer.

QUESTION 640

MDM: Geofencing

ANSWER

a good method to add more features to iphones and android but tools are not regulated like in the app store so caution is advised , data breachs/ leaks

QUESTION 641

MDM: Geolocation

ANSWER

aftermarket firmware, is an unofficial new or modified version of firmware created by third parties on devices such as video game consoles and various embedded device types to provide new features or to unlock hidden functionality.

QUESTION 642

MDM: Screen locks

ANSWER

lets you switch carriers without buying a new device. All carriers are required to let you do this, as long as you've paid off the phone. Many smartphones can work with any U.S. carrier. You can check your phone's compatibility online.

QUESTION 643

Connection methods and receivers: Push notifications

ANSWER

is the wireless delivery of new software, firmware, or other data to mobile devices. Wireless carriers and original equipment manufacturers (OEMs) typically use over-the-air updates to deploy firmware and configure phones for use on their networks over Wi-Fi or mobile broadband poor security

QUESTION 644

Connection methods and receivers: Passwords and PINs

ANSWER

meant to keep you and other property safe, not to stalk you. Cameras are there not to invade a person's privacy but to protect the public by deterring criminal activity and by providing material evidence when a crime has been caught on film.

QUESTION 645

Connection methods and receivers: Biometrics

ANSWER

mms built using the same technology as SMS to allow SMS users to send multimedia content. It's most popularly used to send pictures, but can also be used to send audio, phone contacts, and video files careful of files downloaded by friends, no security measures to check for the attachment RCS is a communication protocol between mobile telephone carriers and between phone and carrier, aiming at replacing SMS messages with a text-message system that is richer, provides phonebook polling (for service discovery), and can transmit in-call multimedia no security measures to check for the attachment

QUESTION 646

Connection methods and receivers: Context-aware authentication

ANSWER

non-fixed-disk based storage media, including tape, optical disk, and CD. ... External Storage Media means disks, tapes, and optical disks, careful of different medium put in disable auto run

QUESTION 647

Connection methods and receivers: Containerization

ANSWER

allows the connection of input devices, data storage, and A/V devices. OTG can allow you to connect up your USB mic to your Android phone. You could even use it to edit with your mouse, or to type an article with your phone. careful with input of different things such as rogue USB drives

QUESTION 648

Connection methods and receivers: Storage segmentation

ANSWER

disable and geofence it

QUESTION 649

Connection methods and receivers: Full device encryption

ANSWER

can use in different areas, causes concern with locations

QUESTION 650

Mobiles devices: MicroSD HSM

ANSWER

wireless network structure where devices can communicate directly with each other, don't use in public

QUESTION 651

Mobiles devices: MDM/Unified Endpoint Management (UEM)

ANSWER

sharing of a mobile device's Internet connection with other connected computers dont use in large public space don't know who is connected

QUESTION 652

Mobiles devices: Mobile application management (MAM)

ANSWER

a physical location where people may obtain Internet access, typically using Wi-Fi technology, via a wireless local-area network (WLAN) using a router connected to an Internet service provider.

QUESTION 653

Mobiles devices: SEAndroid

ANSWER

Cash. Checks. Debit cards. Credit cards. Mobile payments. Electronic bank transfers. dont store it anywhere

QUESTION 654

Enforcement and monitoring of: Third-party application stores

ANSWER

good for users and cost but policies must be reinforced to make sure security measures are maintained.

QUESTION 655

Enforcement and monitoring of: Rooting/jailbreaking

ANSWER

IT business strategy through which an organization buys and provides computing resources and devices to be used and managed by employees

QUESTION 656

Enforcement and monitoring of: Sideloading

ANSWER

the corporation would provide the end user with a number of different options for a mobile device. And then the end user can decide what type of device they would like the corporation to buy for them.

QUESTION 657

Enforcement and monitoring of: Custom firmware

ANSWER

organization or the corporation purchases the mobile device, and then it's used both as a corporate device and as a personal device for the end user.

QUESTION 658

Enforcement and monitoring of: Carrier unlocking

ANSWER

he hosting of desktop environments on a central server. It is a form of desktop virtualization, as the specific desktop images run within virtual machines (VMs) and are delivered to end clients over a network.

QUESTION 659

Enforcement and monitoring of: Firmware over-the-air (OTA) updates

ANSWER

a set of security controls that protects cloud environments against vulnerabilities and reduces the effects of malicious attacks.

QUESTION 660

Enforcement and monitoring of: Camera use

ANSWER

tools and technologies used to manage digital authentication credentials.

QUESTION 661

Enforcement and monitoring of: SMS-Multimedia Messaging Service (MMS)/Rich communication services (RCS)

ANSWER

considers the relationship between information technology, financial and operational controls in establishing an effective and efficient internal control environment.

QUESTION 662

Enforcement and monitoring of: External media

ANSWER

Can access the device storage at any time. This means it can upload personal files or even delete sensitive information from the device.

QUESTION 663

Enforcement and monitoring of: USB On-The-Go (USB OTG)

ANSWER

The use of encryption to protect stored or backed-up data both in transit and in the storage medium to provide an additional layer of security.

QUESTION 664

Enforcement and monitoring of: Recording microphone

ANSWER

a managed service in which stored or archived data is duplicated in real time over a storage area network (SAN)

QUESTION 665

Enforcement and monitoring of: GPS tagging

ANSWER

a storage system that is continuously operational or provides at least 99% uptime.Redundancy is a key feature of HA storage, as it allows data to be kept in more than one place and eliminates a single points of failure (SPOF).

QUESTION 666

Enforcement and monitoring of: Wifi direct/ad hoc

ANSWER

a network where all devices, servers, virtual machines, and data centers that are connected are done so through software and wireless technology.

QUESTION 667

Enforcement and monitoring of: Tethering

ANSWER

A public subnet is a subnet that's associated with a route table that has a route to an internet gateway. A private subnet with a size /24 IPv4 CIDR block (example: 10.0. 1.0/24). ... This connects the VPC to the internet and to other AWS services. Instances with private IPv4 addresses in the subnet range (examples: 10.0.

QUESTION 668

Enforcement and monitoring of: Hotspot

ANSWER

helps you to protect your business against insider attacks as well as attacks by outsiders. Reducing Damage from Successful Attacks.

QUESTION 669

Enforcement and monitoring of: Payment methods

ANSWER

refers to this seamless connectivity that allows organizations to automate business processes, and enhance the sharing and embedding of data between various applications and systems.

QUESTION 670

Deployment models: Bring your own device (BYOD)

ANSWER

used to collect user accounts, computer accounts, and other groups into manageable units. In the Windows Server operating system, there are several built-in accounts and security groups that are preconfigured with the appropriate rights and permissions to perform specific tasks.

QUESTION 671

Deployment models: Corporate-owned personally enabled (COPE)

ANSWER

a virtual table used to determine availability of resources for allocation. The table consists of resources provided by all PM's by means of its Virtual Machines

QUESTION 672

Deployment models: Choose your own device (CYOD)

ANSWER

refers to the idea that computers can both sense, and react based on their environment. Devices may have information about the circumstances under which they are able to operate and based on rules, or an intelligent stimulus, react accordingly.

QUESTION 673

Deployment models: Corporate-owned

ANSWER

are horizontally scaled, redundant, and highly available VPC components. They allow communication between instances in your VPC and services without imposing availability risks.

QUESTION 674

Deployment models: Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)

ANSWER

the process of implementing security tools and policies to assure that all in your container is running as intended, including protection of infrastructure, software supply chain, runtime, and everything between.

QUESTION 675

Cloud security controls

ANSWER

is cloud-hosted software or on-premises software or hardware that act as an intermediary between users and cloud service providers. The ability of a CASB to address gaps in security extends across software-as-a-service (SaaS), platform-as-a-service (PaaS), and infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS) environments.

QUESTION 676

Secrets management

ANSWER

describes security measures at the application level that aim to prevent data or code within the app from being stolen or hijacked.

QUESTION 677

Integration and auditing

ANSWER

protects users from web-based threats in addition to applying and enforcing corporate acceptable use policies. ... Block access to inappropriate websites or content based on acceptable use policies. Enforce their security policies to make internet access safer.

QUESTION 678

storage:permissions

ANSWER

Cost: Need for segmentation: Open systems Interconnection (OSI) Layers

QUESTION 679

Storage: Encryption

ANSWER

platform and infrastructure security, as well as continuous application security. The security must be built into the assets you're working to secure. This applies to multiple layers, from OS to container to application VS company offering a cloud-based platform, infrastructure, application or storage services. Much like a homeowner would pay for a utility such as electricity or gas, companies typically have to pay only for the amount of cloud services they use, as business demands require.

QUESTION 680

Storage: Replication

ANSWER

a service that stores and manages digital identities. Companies use these services to allow their employees or users to connect with the resources they need.

QUESTION 681

Storage: High availability

ANSWER

personal identifiers that are commonly used to distinguish one person from others. Examples include, but are not limited to, name, date of birth, social security number (SSN), and address.

QUESTION 682

Network: Virtual networks

ANSWER

may be used only for authentication or may be used for both authentication and digital signatures.

QUESTION 683

Network: Public and private subnets

ANSWER

a security Token that contains Claims about the Authentication of an End-User by an Authorization Server when using a OAuth Client, and potentially other requested Claims.

QUESTION 684

Network: API inspection and integration

ANSWER

a physical electronic authorization device, used to control access to a resource.

QUESTION 685

Compute: Security groups

ANSWER

an identity created for a person in a computer or computing system

QUESTION 686

Compute: Dynamic resource allocation

ANSWER

any non-person account that may allow multiple users to use a single account to authenticate to the network, application or other university resources.

QUESTION 687

Compute: Instance awareness

ANSWER

a user account that is created to isolate a service or application.

QUESTION 688

Compute: Virtual private cloud (VPC) endpoint

ANSWER

consist of at least seven characters, including three of the following four character types: uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numeric digits, and non-alphanumeric characters such as & $ * and !.

QUESTION 689

Compute: Container security

ANSWER

Number of unique passwords that must be used before an user can re-use his old password.

QUESTION 690

Solutions: CASB

ANSWER

a problem where people try to remember multiple passwords for everything they interact with on a regular basis, but instead use the same password on multiple systems, tiers of applications, or even social sites.

QUESTION 691

Solutions: Application security

ANSWER

a profile that includes a collection of network and sharing settings that get applied to the network you are connected to. Based on the network location assigned to your active network connection, features such as file and printer sharing, network discovery and others might be enabled or disabled.

QUESTION 692

Solutions: Next-generation Secure Web Gateway (SWG)

ANSWER

specifying this boundary in an app or web portal, and by providing the software access to your smartphone's location data.

QUESTION 693

Firewall considerations in a cloud environment

ANSWER

the process of adding geographical identification metadata to various media such as a geotagged photograph or video, websites, SMS messages, QR Codes or RSS feeds and is a form of geospatial metadata.

QUESTION 694

Cloud native controls vs. third-party solutions

ANSWER

refers to the use of location technologies such as GPS or IP addresses to identify and track the whereabouts of connected electronic devices. Because these devices are often carried on an individual's person, geolocation is often used to track the movements and location of people and surveillance.

QUESTION 695

Identity: Identity provider (IDP)

ANSWER

a standard procedure to grant access to an area by detecting a person at an entrance an opening the barrier at a certain time.

QUESTION 696

Identity: Attributes

ANSWER

a list of user groups and the resources with which users in the group are to be provisioned or deprovisioned.

QUESTION 697

Identity: Certificates

ANSWER

verifies that user accounts are used appropriately and consistently with organizational policies.

QUESTION 698

Identity: Tokens

ANSWER

a calculation made by comparing a user's last known location to their current location, then assessing whether the trip is likely or even possible in the time that elapsed between the two measurements.

QUESTION 699

Identity: SSH keys

ANSWER

"locks" the user's account after a defined number of failed password attempts.

QUESTION 700

Identity: Smart cards

ANSWER

technical issues that can cause temporary deactivation.

QUESTION 701

Account types: User account

ANSWER

a user created secret phrase that is used to verify identity or generate cryptographic keys

QUESTION 702

Account types: Shared and generic accounts/credentials

ANSWER

a program that stores usernames and passwords for multiple applications in a secure location and in an encrypted format.

QUESTION 703

Account types: Guest accounts

ANSWER

a computer chip (microcontroller) that can securely store artifacts used to authenticate the platform (your PC or laptop). These artifacts can include passwords, certificates, or encryption keys.

QUESTION 704

Account types: Service accounts

ANSWER

a dedicated cryptographic processor designed to protect highly critical and sensitive keys and assets. HSMs act as trust anchors that protect the cryptographic infrastructure of some of the most security-conscious organizations in the world.

QUESTION 705

Account policies: Password complexity

ANSWER

a method of authentication which seeks to prove the identity of someone accessing a service such as a financial institution or website.

QUESTION 706

Account policies: Password history

ANSWER

confirms that users are who they say they are. gives those users permission to access a resource.

QUESTION 707

Account policies: Password reuse

ANSWER

a protocol for wireless networks that expands the authentication methods used by the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), a protocol often used when connecting a computer to the internet. ... It provides the framework within which the various authentication methods work.

QUESTION 708

Account policies: Network location

ANSWER

an identity checking protocol that periodically re-authenticates the user during an online session

QUESTION 709

Account policies: Geofencing

ANSWER

The oldest and most basic form of authentication and also the least safe because it sends all passwords in cleartext.

QUESTION 710

Account policies: Geotagging

ANSWER

a network authentication protocol that opens ports for network access when an organization authenticates a user's identity and authorizes them for access to the network.

QUESTION 711

Account policies: Geolocation

ANSWER

open standard client/server protocol and software that enables remote access servers to communicate with a central server to authenticate dial-in users and authorize their access to the requested system or service.

QUESTION 712

Account policies: Time-based logins

ANSWER

Using one authentication credential to access multiple accounts or applications.

QUESTION 713

Account policies: Access policies

ANSWER

a standardized way to tell external applications and services that a user is who they say they are makes single sign-on technology possible by providing a way to authenticate a user once and then communicate that authentication to multiple applications.

QUESTION 714

Account policies: Account audits

ANSWER

is Cisco proprietary protocol which is used for the communication of the Cisco client and Cisco ACS server. It uses TCP port number 49 which makes it reliable.

QUESTION 715

Account policies: Impossible travel time/risky login

ANSWER

allows third-party services to exchange your information without you having to give away your password.

QUESTION 716

Account policies: Lockout

ANSWER

A decentralized open source federated identity management system that does not require specific software to be installed on the desktop.

QUESTION 717

Account policies: Disablement

ANSWER

a computer network security protocol that authenticates service requests between two or more trusted hosts across an untrusted network, like the internet. It uses secret-key cryptography and a trusted third party for authenticating client-server applications and verifying users' identities

QUESTION 718

Authentication management: Password keys

ANSWER

regulates who or what can view or use resources in a computing environment

QUESTION 719

Authentication management: Password vaults

ANSWER

This is an access control paradigm whereby access rights are granted to users with policies that combine attributes together.

QUESTION 720

Authentication management: TPM

ANSWER

Select below the access control model that uses access based on a user's job function within an organization:

QUESTION 721

Authentication management: HSM

ANSWER

An access control model that based on a list of predefined rules that determine what accesses should be granted

QUESTION 722

Authentication management: Knowledge-based authentication

ANSWER

A means of restricting access to data based on varying degrees of security requirements for information contained in the objects and the corresponding security clearance of users or programs acting on their behalf.

QUESTION 723

Authentication/authorization

ANSWER

A means of restricting access to objects based on the identity of subjects and/or groups to which they belong.

QUESTION 724

EAP

ANSWER

is the protection of content by requiring certain criteria to be met before granting access to the content. The term is commonly used in relation to digital television systems and to software.

QUESTION 725

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

ANSWER

refers to systems that securely manage the accounts of users who have elevated permissions to critical, corporate resources.

QUESTION 726

Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)

ANSWER

control what user is permitted to perform which actions on a file

QUESTION 727

802.1X

ANSWER

a catch-all term for everything used to establish and manage public key encryption, one of the most common forms of internet encryption.

QUESTION 728

RADIUS

ANSWER

The method whereby two nodes using key encryption agree on common parameters for the keys they will use to encrypt data.

QUESTION 729

Single sign-on (SSO)

ANSWER

A trusted third-party agency that is responsible for issuing digital certificates.

QUESTION 730

Security Assertions Markup Language (SAML)

ANSWER

Subordinate organizations or entities to which CAs delegate the day-to-day issuance of certificates on behalf of the CA.

QUESTION 731

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+)

ANSWER

A subordinate entity designed to handle specific CA tasks such as processing certificate requests and authenticating users.

QUESTION 732

OAuth

ANSWER

A repository that lists revoked digital certificates.

QUESTION 733

OpenID

ANSWER

a term that describes the identifying information in a certificate and is part of the certificate itself.

QUESTION 734

Kerberos

ANSWER

A protocol that performs a real-time lookup of a certificate's status.

QUESTION 735

Access control schemes

ANSWER

A specially formatted encrypted message that validates the information the CA requires to issue a digital certificate.

QUESTION 736

Attribute-based access control (ABAC)

ANSWER

known as the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN), is the characteristic value within a Distinguished Name (DN)

QUESTION 737

Role-based access control

ANSWER

an extension to the X. 509 specification that allows users to specify additional host names for a single SSL certificate.

QUESTION 738

Rule-based access control

ANSWER

dates are an important way of providing assurance to the security of SSL

QUESTION 739

Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

ANSWER

Wildcard, SAN, Code Signing, Self-Signed, Machine/Computer, Email, User, Root, Domain Validation, Extended Validation

QUESTION 740

Discretionary access control (DAC)

ANSWER

A special character that represents other characters in a search.

QUESTION 741

Conditional access

ANSWER

an extension to the X. 509 specification that allows users to specify additional host names for a single SSL certificate.

QUESTION 742

Privilege access management

ANSWER

the process of digitally signing executables and scripts to confirm the software author and guarantee that the code has not been altered or corrupted since it was signed.

QUESTION 743

Filesystem permissions

ANSWER

A signed digital certificate that does not depend upon any higher level authority for authentication.

QUESTION 744

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

ANSWER

A signed digital certificate that is created locally aside from higher level authority for authentication.

QUESTION 745

Key management

ANSWER

is meant to provide a legal equivalent of the traditional registered mail: by paying a small fee, users are able to legally prove that a given email has been sent and received.

QUESTION 746

Certificate authority (CA)

ANSWER

EUC, is a document used in international transfers, including sales and arms provided as aid, of weapons and ammunition to certify that the buyer is the final recipient of the materials, and is not planning on transferring the materials to another party.Jun 2, 2020

QUESTION 747

Intermediate CA

ANSWER

he cornerstone of authentication and security in software and on the Internet. They're issued by a certified authority (CA) and, essentially, verify that the software/website owner is who they say they are

QUESTION 748

Registration authority (RA)

ANSWER

the right to administratively manage the domain name in question

QUESTION 749

Certificate revocation list (CRL)

ANSWER

a digital identity authentication solution used by HTTPS websites to provide the highest level of security by verifying the identity of a website owner or operator.

QUESTION 750

Certificate attributes

ANSWER

There are different formats of X. 509 certificates such as PEM, DER, PKCS#7 and PKCS#12. PEM and PKCS#7 formats use Base64 ASCII encoding while DER and PKCS#12 use binary encoding. The certificate files have different extensions based on the format and encoding they use.

QUESTION 751

Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP)

ANSWER

Privacy enhanced mail (PEM)

QUESTION 752

Certificate signing request (CSR)

ANSWER

Fully encrypted files that require a password to open. May contain single certificates, certificate chains, or private keys, although in most cases it is used to store public/private key pairs. A binary file that is heavily used by Microsoft products. Also known as PKCS#12. Uses the extension .pfx or .p12.

QUESTION 753

CN

ANSWER

used to store X. 509 certificate. Normally used for SSL certification to verify and identify web servers security.

QUESTION 754

Subject alternative name

ANSWER

restricts which certificates are considered valid for a particular website, limiting risk. Instead of allowing any trusted certificate to be used, operators "pin" the certificate authority (CA) issuer(s), public keys or even end-entity certificates of their choice.

QUESTION 755

Expiration

ANSWER

PKCS#7. A common format for PKI certificates. They are DER-based (ASCII) and commonly used to share public keys.

QUESTION 756

Types of certificates

ANSWER

Online vs. offline CA:

QUESTION 757

Wildcard

ANSWER

a time-stamped OCSP response signed by the CA to the initial TLS handshake

QUESTION 758

Self-signed

ANSWER

the process of storing a copy of an encryption key in a secure location

QUESTION 759

Machine/computer

ANSWER

Linking several certificates together to establish trust between all the certificates involved.

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