IT CertificationsComprehensive Study Set

Comptia Certmaster Practice For Security+ Sy0 601

99 questions across 0 topics. Use the find bar or section chips to jump to what you need.

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QUESTION 1

The user installed Trojan horse malware.

ANSWER

A user used an administrator account to download and install a software application. After the user launched the .exe extension installer file, the user experienced frequent crashes, slow computer performance, and strange services running when turning on the computer. What most likely happened to cause these issues?

QUESTION 2

A worm

ANSWER

A security operations center (SOC) analyst investigates the propagation of a memory-resident virus across the network and notices a rapid consumption of network bandwidth, causing a Denial of Service (DoS). What type of virus is this?

QUESTION 3

PUP (potentially unwanted program)

ANSWER

A user purchased a laptop from a local computer shop. After powering on the laptop for the first time, the user noticed a few programs like Norton Antivirus asking for permission to install. How would an IT security specialist classify these programs?

QUESTION 4

-Uses lightweight shellcode -Uses low observable characteristic attacks

ANSWER

A fileless malicious software can replicate between processes in memory on a local host or over network shares. What other behaviors and techniques would classify malware as fileless rather than a normal virus? (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 5

-Computer Bots, -Command & Control

ANSWER

An attacker is planning to set up a backdoor that will infect a set of specific computers at an organization, to inflict a set of other intrusion attacks remotely. Which of the following will support the attackers' plan? (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 6

-Launch a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack -Establish a connection with a Command and Control server -Launch a mass-mail spam attack

ANSWER

If a user's computer becomes infected with a botnet, which of the following can this compromise allow the attacker to do? (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 7

Have up-to-date backups.

ANSWER

If a user's device becomes infected with crypto-malware, which of the following is the best way to mitigate this compromise?

QUESTION 8

A logic bomb

ANSWER

A security specialist discovers a malicious script on a computer. The script is set to execute if the administrator's account becomes disabled. What type of malware did the specialist discover?

QUESTION 9

Spyware infected the computers.

ANSWER

End-users at an organization contact the cybersecurity department. After downloading a file, they are being redirected to shopping websites they did not intend to navigate to, and built-in webcams turn on. The security team confirms the issue as malicious, and notes modified DNS (Domain Name System) queries that go to nefarious websites hosting malware. What most likely happened to the users' computers?

QUESTION 10

A Remote Access Trojan (RAT)

ANSWER

An attacker installs Trojan malware that can execute remote backdoor commands, such as the ability to upload files and install software to a victim PC. What type of Trojan malware is this?

QUESTION 11

Password spraying attack

ANSWER

A hacker is trying to gain remote access to a company computer by trying brute force password attacks using a few common passwords in conjunction with multiple usernames. What specific type of password attack is the hacker most likely performing?

QUESTION 12

-A rainbow table -A dictionary word

ANSWER

An attacker can exploit a weakness in a password protocol to calculate the hash of a password. Which of the following can the attacker match the hash to, as a means to obtain the password? (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 13

A rainbow table attack

ANSWER

Which of the following attacks do security professionals expose themselves to, if they do not salt passwords with a random value?

QUESTION 14

Clone it.

ANSWER

How can an attacker make unauthorized use of acquired user and account details from a user's smart card?

QUESTION 15

Skimming

ANSWER

What type of attack is occurring when a counterfeit card reader is in use?

QUESTION 16

Cross-site scripting (XSS)

ANSWER

An attacker discovered an input validation vulnerability on a website, crafted a URL with additional HTML code, and emailed the link to a victim. The victim unknowingly defaced (vandalized) the web site after clicking on the malicious URL. No other malicious operations occurred outside of the web application's root directory. This scenario is describing which type of attack?

QUESTION 17

DLL injection

ANSWER

An attacker escalated privileges to a local administrator and used code refactoring to evade antivirus detection. The attacker then allowed one process to attach to another and forced the operating system to load a malicious binary package. What did the attacker successfully perform?

QUESTION 18

LDAP injection

ANSWER

Using an open connection to a small company's network, an attacker submitted arbitrary queries on port 389 to the domain controllers. The attacker initiated the query from a client computer. What type of injection attack did the attacker perform?

QUESTION 19

A malicious process can alter the execution environment to create a null pointer, and crash the program.

ANSWER

How can the lack of logic statement tests on memory location variables be detrimental to software in development?

QUESTION 20

A buffer overflow

ANSWER

An attacker gained remote access to a user's computer by exploiting a vulnerability in a piece of software on the device. The attacker sent data that was able to manipulate the memory size that the application reserved to store expected data. Which vulnerability exploit resulted from the attacker's actions?

QUESTION 21

Race condition

ANSWER

Developers found a "time of check to time of use" (TOCTTOU) vulnerability in their application. The vulnerability made it possible to change temporary data created within the app before the app uses the data later. This vulnerability is taking advantage of what process in the application?

QUESTION 22

Revealing database server configuration

ANSWER

A web application's code prevents the output of any type of information when an error occurs during a request. The development team cited security reasons as to why they developed the application in this way. What sort of security issues did the team have concerns about in this case?

QUESTION 23

Replay attack

ANSWER

An intruder monitors an admin's unsecure connection to a server and finds some required data, like a cookie file, that legitimately establishes a session with a web server. Knowing the admin's logon credentials, what type of attack can the intruder perform with the cookie file?

QUESTION 24

Server-side request forgery

ANSWER

An attacker submitted a modified uniform resource locator (URL) link to a website that eventually established connections to back-end databases and exposed internal service configurations. The attacker did not hijack a user to perform this attack. This describes which of the following types of attacks?

QUESTION 25

Cross-site Request Forgery (XSRF)

ANSWER

An attacker modified the HTML code of a legitimate password-change web form, then hosted the .html file on the attacker's web server. The attacker then emailed a URL link of the hosted file to a real user of the web page. Once the user clicked the link, it changed the user's password to a value the attacker set. Based on this information, what type of attack is the website vulnerable to?

QUESTION 26

-Key discovery -Improper error handling

ANSWER

The latest web application, using default settings, is currently accepting application programming interface (API) calls over HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP). The environment has a moderate key management system. Even with basic server security, the API connection is vulnerable to which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 27

-Resource exhaustion -Denial of service (DoS) -Amplification

ANSWER

Which of the following conditions are results of a SYN (synchronize) flood attack? (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 28

A shim

ANSWER

By compromising a Windows XP application that ran on a Windows 10 machine, an attacker installed persistent malware on a victim computer with local administrator privileges. What should the attacker add to the registry, along with its files added to the system folder, to execute this malware?

QUESTION 29

Refactoring

ANSWER

Through what method can malware evade antivirus software detection, so that the software no longer identifies the malware by its signature?

QUESTION 30

-A pass-the-hash attack -A replay attack

ANSWER

A security engineer implemented once-only tokens and timestamping sessions. What type of attacks can this type of security prevent? (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 31

A rogue access point (AP)

ANSWER

A security analyst's scans and network logs show that unauthorized devices are connecting to the network. After tracing this down, the analyst discovered a tethered smartphone creating a backdoor to gain access to the network. Which of the following describes this device?

QUESTION 32

Bluesnarfing

ANSWER

An attacker used an exploit to steal information from a mobile device, which allowed the attacker to circumvent the authentication process. The mobile device is vulnerable to which of the following attacks?

QUESTION 33

-Locate the offending radio source and disable it. -Boost the signal of the legitimate equipment.

ANSWER

An attacker used an illegal access point (AP) with a very strong signal near a wireless network. If the attacker performed a jamming attack, which of the following would mitigate this type of network disruption? (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 34

IV attacks

ANSWER

Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) fixes critical vulnerabilities in the earlier wired equivalent privacy (WEP) standard. Understanding that WPA uses a combination of an RC4 stream cipher and Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP), this makes a wireless access point NOT vulnerable to which of the following attacks when related to encrypted wireless packets?

QUESTION 35

A Man-in-the-Middle attack

ANSWER

A malicious user sniffed credentials exchanged between two computers by intercepting communications between them. What type of attack did the attacker execute?

QUESTION 36

Domain Name System (DNS) client cache poisoning

ANSWER

A hacker corrupted the name:IP records held on the HOSTS file on a client, to divert traffic for a legitimate domain to a malicious IP address. What type of attack did the hacker perform?

QUESTION 37

-Domain reputation -URL redirections

ANSWER

External hackers have some access to a company's website and made some changes. Customers have submitted multiple complaints via email for wrong orders and inappropriate images on the website. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is now worried about the distribution of malware. The company should prepare for which of the following other issues or concerns? (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 38

Network

ANSWER

A low level distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack that involves SYN or SYN/ACK flooding describes what type of attack?

QUESTION 39

Application attack

ANSWER

An attacker is preparing to perform what type of attack when the target vulnerabilities include headers and payloads of specific application protocols?

QUESTION 40

PowerShell script

ANSWER

A security engineer examined some suspicious error logs on a Windows server that showed attempts to run shellcode to a web application. The shellcode showed multiple lines beginning with Invoke-Command. What type of script is the suspicious code trying to run?

QUESTION 41

Python script

ANSWER

A Linux systems admin reported a suspicious .py file that ran on a daily schedule after business hours. The file includes shellcode that would automate Application Programming Interface (API) calls to a web application to get information. What type of script is executing this shellcode?

QUESTION 42

By using VBA code

ANSWER

A malicious actor is preparing a script to run with an Excel spreadsheet as soon as the target opens the file. The script includes a few macros designed to secretly gather and send information to a remote server. How is the malicious actor accomplishing this task?

QUESTION 43

Geographical dispersal

ANSWER

An application requires continuity of operations within a 24 hour period due to the command and control capabilities it maintains. The failover site must be physically separated from the program office and be available within the required timeframe with live data. Which of the following redundancy solutions best meets the failover requirement?

QUESTION 44

RAID-10

ANSWER

Which Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) combines mirroring and striping and is the better option for mission critical applications?

QUESTION 45

UPS

ANSWER

A data center needs to ensure that data is not lost at the system level in the event of a blackout. Servers must stay operable for at least an eight-hour window as part of the response and recovery controls implemented. Which redundancy effort should be put in place to ensure the data remains available?

QUESTION 46

Managed PDUs

ANSWER

A system engineer can monitor and control voltage factors in a data center. The engineer can make critical decisions on the center's energy consumption and load balancing. Which device is the engineer likely using to make these decisions?

QUESTION 47

SAN

ANSWER

A company requires a means of managing storage centrally and the ability to share the storage with multiple hosts where users can access data quickly, with little to no latency. Which of the following storage architectures would best meet the company's needs?

QUESTION 48

Revert to known state

ANSWER

A company has implemented a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) where the user's desktop operates as a Virtual Machine (VM) on a centralized server. When users log off the machine, any changes made at the VM level are not saved. Which means for ensuring non-persistence has been implemented?

QUESTION 49

Take a snapshot of the server before installing on the server.

ANSWER

A system engineer has tested a new application in the lab, and wants to deploy the application on a production server. The server is a virtual machine that processes and stores live data for company employees. Which of the following is the BEST approach for deploying the new application on the server?

QUESTION 50

Tape

ANSWER

A system engineer is researching backup solutions that are inexpensive and can store large amounts of data offline. The backup solution must be portable and maintainable for a certain length of time defined in the company's backup recovery plan. Which of the following is the best backup solution?

QUESTION 51

NAS

ANSWER

A network administrator is installing a device that uses Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) technologies for redundancy and provides employees remote access so that files can be accessed anywhere. The device does not require licensing and stores data at the file level. Which device is the employee likely installing in the infrastructure?

QUESTION 52

Offline

ANSWER

An aviation tracking system maintains flight records for equipment and personnel. The system is a critical command and control system that must maintain an availability rate of 99% for key parameter performance. The cloud service provider (CSP) guarantees a failover to multiple zones if an outage occurs. In addition to the multi-zonal cloud failover, what backup solution would allow the system to maintain data locally?

QUESTION 53

Scalability

ANSWER

When workload heavily increased, a company maintained service performance by manually installing an additional load balanced server. What feature of the IT architecture allowed this to occur?

QUESTION 54

Vendor diversity

ANSWER

A system engineer enhances the security of a network by adding firewalls to both the external network and the internal company network. The firewalls are products of two separate companies. This is an example of what type of security control practice?

QUESTION 55

Control diversity

ANSWER

A startup company adds a firewall, an IDS, and a HIPS to its infrastructure. At the end of the week, they will install HVAC in the server room. The company has scheduled penetration testing every month. Which type of layered security does this represent?

QUESTION 56

DNS Security Extensions

ANSWER

An authoritative server for a zone creates a Resource Records Set (RRSet) signed with a zone signing key. From the following Domain Name System (DNS) traits and functions, what does this scenario demonstrate?

QUESTION 57

S/MIME

ANSWER

The administrator in an exchange server needs to send digitally signed and encrypted messages. What should the administrator use?

QUESTION 58

SRTP (Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol)

ANSWER

An organization uses a Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) endpoint for establishing communications with remote branch offices. Which of the following protocols will provide encryption for streaming data during the call?

QUESTION 59

LDAPS (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Secure)

ANSWER

A web server will utilize a directory protocol to enable users to authenticate with domain credentials. A certificate will be issued to the server to setup a secure tunnel. Which protocol is ideal for this situation?

QUESTION 60

-Tunnel -Transport

ANSWER

A Transport Layer Security (TLS) Virtual Private Network (VPN) requires a remote access server listening on port 443 to encrypt traffic with a client machine. An IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) VPN can deliver traffic in two modes. One mode encrypts only the payload of the IP packet. The other mode encrypts the whole IP packet (header and payload). These two modes describe which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 61

-Establish a guest zone -Upload files using SSH -Use configuration templates

ANSWER

Consider the principles of web server hardening and determine which actions a system administrator should take when deploying a new web server in a demilitarized zone (DMZ).

QUESTION 62

FTPES

ANSWER

Which of the following protocols would secure file transfer services for an internal network?

QUESTION 63

Directory services

ANSWER

Implementing Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Secure (LDAPS) on a web server secures direct queries to which of the following?

QUESTION 64

-Source routing -Route injection -Software exploits

ANSWER

Select the vulnerabilities that can influence routing. (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 65

Provision SSO access

ANSWER

Management has set up a feed or subscription service to inform users on regular updates to the network and its various systems and services. The feed is only accessible from the internal network. What else can systems administrators do to limit the service to internal access?

QUESTION 66

-Prevent malicious traffic between VMs -Protection from zero day attacks

ANSWER

A small organization operates several virtual servers in a single host environment. The physical network utilizes a physical firewall with NIDS for security. What would be the benefits of installing a Host Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) at the end points? (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 67

Measured Boot

ANSWER

Which of the following would secure an endpoint and provide attestation signed by a trusted platform module (TPM)?

QUESTION 68

Measured boot will record the presence of unsigned kernel-level code.

ANSWER

A support technician reviews a computer's boot integrity capabilities and discovers that the system supports a measured boot process. Which statement accurately describes this process?

QUESTION 69

Input validation

ANSWER

A developer writes code for a new application, and wants to ensure protective countermeasures against the execution of SQL injection attacks. What secure coding technique will provide this?

QUESTION 70

-HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS) -Content Security Policy (CSP) -Cache-Control

ANSWER

A web administrator notices a few security vulnerabilities that need to be addressed on the company Intranet site. The portal must force a secure browsing connection, mitigate script injection, and prevent caching on shared client devices. Determine the secure options to set on the web server's response headers. (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 71

Static code analysis

ANSWER

Which of the following is used to review application code for signatures of known issues before it is packaged as an executable?

QUESTION 72

Dynamic Analysis

ANSWER

During the functional testing phase of application development, an application tests for vulnerabilities against the running code. What type of code testing is this?

QUESTION 73

Disk encryption

ANSWER

The IT team has purchased a few devices that are compatible with the Trusted Computing Group Security Subsystem Class called Opal. Which of these device specifications will take advantage of Opal's security features?

QUESTION 74

Hardware root of trust

ANSWER

A laptop arrives at the company technology lab with a private key embedded, providing full disk encryption. When matched with a public key, what does this system provide?

QUESTION 75

Development

ANSWER

Following a secure deployment methodology for custom applications, early code testing would run in which type of environment?

QUESTION 76

Configure scheduling.

ANSWER

What can a system administrator configure on two load balanced servers to achieve a round-robin configuration?

QUESTION 77

-Set up efficient east-west traffic. -Set up zero trust.

ANSWER

Cloud engineers are considering network segmentation options that will provide the most security between services on the cloud platform. Which of the following would ensure this type of network security is within the cloud? (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 78

TLS 1.2

ANSWER

A company recently implemented a Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security (SSL/TLS) version that supports Secure Hashing Algorithm-256 (SHA-256) cipher. Which SSL/TLS version was deployed?

QUESTION 79

HTML5

ANSWER

Systems administrators want to set up a way for remote administration from home. Rather than installing a software agent, the solution should use an underlying technology that is available to an application, such as a web browser. Which option would best support these requirements?

QUESTION 80

Broadcast storms

ANSWER

A network engineer is plugging in new patch cables and wants to prevent inadvertent disruptions to the network while doing so. What will the engineer prevent if Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is configured on the switches?

QUESTION 81

Provide secure access to DMZ servers.

ANSWER

What is a jump server commonly used for?

QUESTION 82

Reverse Proxy

ANSWER

A company hosts internal web servers between two firewalls: one firewall at the edge network and another near the internal gateways. These web servers provide multiple services to employees on the road. A recent security audit advised the company to find ways to further secure connections between remote clients and these internal web servers. Which of the following will satisfy the security advice?

QUESTION 83

Signature-based

ANSWER

An administrator deploys a basic network intrusion detection (NID) device to identify common patterns of attacks. What detection method does this device use?

QUESTION 84

-Block TCP ports -Allow network protocols

ANSWER

A network administrator set up a basic packet filtering firewall using an open-source application running on a Linux virtual machine. The immediate benefit to this deployment is the quick configuration of basic firewall rules. Which of the following reasons may have also influenced the administrator's decision to deploy a stateless, rather than a stateful, firewall? (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 85

ACL

ANSWER

An administrator navigates to the Windows Firewall with Advanced Security. The inbound rules show a custom rule, which assigned the action, "Allow the connection" to all programs, all protocols, and all ports with a scope of 192.168.0.0/24. This is an example of what type of security setting?

QUESTION 86

-Message authentication -Block source routed packets

ANSWER

A company is renovating a new office space and is updating all Cisco routers. The up-to-date Internetwork Operating System (IOS) will provide the best protection from zero-day exploits. What other options could a network administrator configure for route security? (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 87

Use 802.1p header.

ANSWER

Users are reporting jittery video communication during routine video conferences. What can a system administrator implement to improve video quality and overall use of the network bandwidth?

QUESTION 88

-WPA2, and not WPA, supports an encryption algorithm based on the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) instead of the version of RC4 "patched" with the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP). -WPA2, and not WPA, uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) cipher with 128-bit keys.

ANSWER

Evaluate and select the differences between WPA and WPA2. (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 89

-WPA3 -SAE

ANSWER

Which wireless configuration provides the most up-to-date and secure way of connecting wireless devices to an office or home network? (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 90

-Survey a site for signal strength -Determine where to place access points

ANSWER

What are the benefits of using Wi-Fi heat maps for wireless networks? (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 91

Configure VPC endpoint interface.

ANSWER

A cloud administrator connects two separate cloud server instances on Amazon Web Services (AWS). How does the administrator configure the instances with private IP addresses without using an Internet gateway?

QUESTION 92

Split segments between VPCs

ANSWER

A cloud customer prefers separating storage resources that hold different sets of data in virtual private clouds (VPCs). One of those data sets must comply with Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) guidelines for patient data. How should the customer configure these VPCs to ensure the highest degree of network security?

QUESTION 93

-78% average error rate -Spike in API calls

ANSWER

A cloud service provider (CSP) dashboard provides a view of all applicable logs for cloud resources and services. When examining the application programming interface (API) logs, the cloud engineer sees some odd metrics. Which of the following are examples that the engineer would have concerns for? (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 94

The provider is responsible for the availability of the software.

ANSWER

A company is looking into integrating on-premise services and cloud services with a cloud service provider (CSP) using an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) plan. As a cloud architect works on architectural design, which of the following statements would NOT apply in this case?

QUESTION 95

Allow list

ANSWER

A company set up controls to allow only a specific set of software and tools to install on workstations. A user navigates to a software library to make a selection. What type of method prevents installation of software that is not a part of a library?

QUESTION 96

CASB

ANSWER

A large firm requires better control over mobile users' access to business applications in the cloud. This will require single-sign on and support for different device types. What solution should the company consider using?

QUESTION 97

-A solution that is known as zone-redundant storage. -Access is available if a single data center is destroyed.

ANSWER

An organization moves its data to the cloud. Engineers utilize regional replication to protect data. Review the descriptions and conclude which ones apply to this configuration. (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 98

-Regional replication -High availability

ANSWER

Cloud service providers make services available around the world through a variety of methods. The concept of a zone assumes what type of service level? (Select all that apply.)

QUESTION 99

Next-generation secure web gateway

ANSWER

Determine a solution that can combine with a cloud access security broker (CASB) to provide a wholly cloud-hosted platform for client access?

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