Ceh Exam Questions And Answers Pdf
107 questions across 0 topics. Use the find bar or section chips to jump to what you need.
Which of the following is the best example of a deterrent control? A. A log aggregation system B. Hidden cameras onsite. C. A guard posted outside the door. D. Backup recovery systems.
C. A guard posted outside the door. Deterrents have to be visible to prevent an attack. A guard visible outside the door could help prevent physical attacks.
Enacted in 2002, this US law requires every federal agency to implement information security programs, including significant reporting on compliance and accreditation. Which of the following is the best choice for this definition? A. FISMA B. HIPAA C. NIST 800-53 D. OSSTMM
A. FISMA (Federal Information Security Management Act) FISMA has been around since 2002 and was updated in 2014. It gave information security responsibilities to NIST, OMB, and other government agencies, and declared the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) as the operational lead for budgets and guidelines on security matters.
Brad has done some research and determined that a certain set of systems on his network fail once every ten years. The purchase price for each of these systems is $1200. Brad also discovers that the admins on staff, who earn $50 an hour, estimate five hours to replace a machine. Five employees, earning $25 an hour, depend on each system and will be completely unproductive while it's down. What is the ALE of these devices? A. $2075 B. $207.50 C. $120 D. $1200
B. $207.50 ARO = 1 Occurrence/10 years = 0.1 SLE = $1200 + (5 x 50 = 250) + (5 x 5 x 25 = 625) = $2075 $2075 x 0.1 = $207.50
An ethical hacker is hired to test the security of a business network. The CEH is given no prior knowledge of the network and has a specific framework in which to work, defining boundaries, NDAs, and the completion data. Which of the following is a true statement? A. A white hat is attempting a black box test. B. A white hat is attempting a white box test. C. A black hat is attempting a black box test. D. A black hat is attempting a gray box test.
A. A white hat is attempting a black box test. An ethical hacker hired under a specific agreement is a white hat.
When an attack by a hacker is politically motivated, the hacker is said to be participating in which of the following? A. Black Hat Hacking B. Gray Box Attacks C. Gray Hat Attacks D. Hacktivism
D. Hacktivism
Two hackers attempt to crack a company's network resource security. One is considered an ethical hacker, whereas the other is not. What distinguishes the ethical hacker from the "cracker"? A. The cracker always attempts white box testing. B. The ethical hacker always attempts black box testing. C. The cracker posts results to the Internet. D. The ethical hacker always obtains written permission before testing.
D. The ethical hacker always obtains written permission before testing.
In which stage of an ethical hack would the attacker actively apply tools and techniques to gather more in-depth information on their targets? A. Active Reconnaissance B. Scanning and enumeration C. Gaining Access D. Passive Reconnaissance
B. Scanning and enumeration
Which type of attack is generally conducted as an inside attacker with elevated privileges on the resources? A. Gray Box B. White Box C. Black Box D. Active Reconnaissance
B. White Box
Which of the following Common Criteria processes refers to the system or product being tested? A. ST B. PP C. EAL D. TOE
D. TOE (Target of Evaluation)
Your company has a document that spells out exactly what employees are allowed to do on their computer systems. It also defines what is prohibited and what consequences await those who break the rules. A copy of this document is signed by all employees prior to their network access. Which of the following best describes this policy? A. Information Security Policy B. Special Access Policy C. Information Audit Policy D. Network Connection Policy
A. Information Security Policy The Information Security Policy, sometimes known as the Acceptable Use Policy, defines what is allowed and not allowed, and what the consequences are for misbehavior in regard to resources on the corporate network.
Sally is a member of a pen test team newly hired to test a bank's security. She begins searching for IP addresses the bank may own by searching public records on the Internet. She also looks up news articles and job postings to discover information that may be valuable. In what phase of the pen test is Sally working? A. Preparation B. Assessment C. Conclusion D. Reconnaissance
B. Assessment The Assessment phase is where all the activity takes place, including the passive information gathering performed by Sally in this example.
Joe is a security engineer for a firm. His company downsizes, and Joe discovers he will be laid off within a short amount of time. Joe plants viruses and sets about destroying data and settings throughout the network, with no regard to being caught. Which type of hacker is Joe considered to be? A. Hacktivist B. Suicide Hacker C. Black Hat D. Script Kiddie
B. Suicide Hacker
Elements of security include confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Which technique provides for integrity? A. Encryption B. UPS C. Hashing D. Passwords
C. Hashing
Which of the following best describes an effort to identify systems that are critical for continuation of operation for the organization? A. BCP B. BIA C. MTD D. DRP
B. BIA (Business Impact Analysis) A BIA is the actual process to identify those critical systems.
Which of the following would be the best choice for footprinting restricted URLs and OS information from a target? A. www.archive.org B. www.alexa.com C. Netcraft D. Yesware
C. Netcraft "Netcraft provides security services, including anti-fraud and anti-phishing services, application testing, and PCI scanning."
Which of the following consists of a publicly available set of databases that contain domain name registration contact information? A. IETF B. IANA C. Whois D. OSRF
C. Whois Whois is a great resource to scour public information regarding your target. Registration databases contain data points that may be useful, such as domain registration, points of contact, and IP ranges.
Which of the following best describes the role that the U.S. Computer Security Incident Response Team (CSIRT) provides? A. Vulnerability measurement and assessments for the U.S. Department of Defense. B. A reliable and consistent point of contact for all incident response services for associates of the Department of Homeland Security. C. Incident response services for all Internet providers. D. Pen test registration for public and private sector.
B. CSIRT provides incident response services for any user, company, agency, or organization in partnership with the Department of Homeland Security.
A security peer is confused about a recent incident. An attacker successfully accessed a machine in the organization and made off with some sensitive data. A full vulnerability scan was run immediately following the theft, and nothing was discovered. Which of the following best describes what may have happened? A. The attacker took advantage of a zero-day vulnerability on the machine. B. The attacker performed a full rebuild of the machine after he was done. C. The attacker performed a denial-of-service attack. D. Security measures on the device were completely disabled before the attack began.
A. Zero-Day Vulnerability A zero-day vulnerability is simply one that security personnel, vendors, and even vulnerability scanners don't know about yet. It's more likely the attacker is using an attack vector unknown to the security personnel than he somehow managed to turn off all security measures without alerting anyone.
Which footprinting tool or technique can be used to find the names and addresses of employees or technical points of contact? A. whois B. nslookup C. dig D. traceroute
A. Whois Whois provides information on the domain registration, including technical and business POCs' addresses and e-mails.
Which Google hack would display all pages that have the words SQL and Version in their titles? A. inurl:SQL inurl:version B. allinurl:SQL version C. intitle:SQL inurl:version D. allintitle:SQL version
D. allintitle:SQL version The Google search operator allintitle allows for the combination of strings in the title. The operator inurl looks only in the URL of the site.
Which of the following are passive footprinting methods (Choose all that apply)? A. Checking DNS replies for network mapping purposes. B. Collecting information through publicly accessible sources. C. Performing a ping sweep against the network range. D. Sniffing network traffic through a network tap.
A. Checking DNS replies, and B. Collecting information through publicly accessible sources. Passive footprinting is all about publicly accessible sources.
Which OSRF application checks to see if a username has been registered in up to 22 different e-mail providers? A. mailfy.py B. usufy.py C. entify.py D. searchfy.py
A. mailfy.py The tool mailfy.py checks if a user name (e-mail) has been registered in up to 22 different e-mail providers. The tool usufy.py verifies if a user name/profile exists in up to 306 different platforms. entify.py looks for regular expressions, and searchfy.py looks for profiles using full names and other info in seven platforms.
You have an FTP service and an HTTP site on a single server. Which DNS record allows you to alias both services to the same record (IP address)? A. NS B. SOA C. CNAME D. PTR
C. CNAME (Canonical Name) CNAME records provide for aliases within the zone.
As a pent test team member, you begin searching for IP ranges owned by the target organization and discover their network range. You also read job postings and news articles and visit the organization's website. Throughout the first week of the test, you also observe when employees come to and leave work, and you rummage through the trash outside the building for useful information. Which type of footprinting are you accomplishing? A. Active B. Passive C. Reconnaissance D. None of the above.
B. Passive All the methods discussed are passive in nature, per EC-Council's definition.
A pen tester is attempting to use nslookup and has the tool in interactive mode for the search. Which command should be used to request the appropriate records? A. request type=ns B. transfer type=ns C. locate type=ns D. set type=ns
D. set type=ns The syntax for the other commands listed is incorrect.
A member of your team enters the following command: nmap -sV -sC -O -traceroute IPAddress Which of the following Nmap commands performs the same task? A. nmap -A IPAddress B. nmap -all IPAddress C. nmap -Os IPAddress D. nmap -aA IPAddress
A. nmap -A IPAddress The -A switch turns on OS detection, version detection, script scanning, and traceroute, just as the -O, -sV, -sC, and -traceroute switches do in conjunction with each other.
You want to perform banner grabbing against a machine (168.15.22.4) you suspect as being a web server. Assuming you have the correct tools installed, which of the following command-line entries will successfully perform a banner grab? (Choose all that apply) A. telnet 168.15.22.4 80 B. telnet 80 168.15.22.4 C. nc -v -n 168.15.22.4 80 D. nc -v -n 80 168.15.22.4
A. telnet 168.15.22.4 and C. nc-v-n 168.15.22.4 80 Both Telnet and netcat, among others, can be used for banner grabbing. The correct syntax for both has the port number last.
You've decided to begin scanning against a target organization but want to keep your efforts as quiet as possible. Which IDS evasion technique splits the TCP header among multiple packets? A. Fragmenting B. IP Spoofing C. Proxy scanning D. Anonymizer
A. Fragmenting Fragmenting packets is a great way to evade an IDS, for any purpose. Sometimes referred to as IP Fragments, splitting a TCP header across multiple packets can serve to keep you hidden while scanning.
One of your team members is analyzing TTL fields and TCP window sizes in order to fingerprint the OS of a target. Which of the following is most likely being attempted? A. Online OS fingerprinting B. Passive OS fingerprinting C. Aggressive OS fingerprinting D. Active OS fingerprinting
B. Passive OS fingerprinting Generally speaking, any activity noted in a question that does not explicitly state you are crafting packets and injecting them toward a system indicates you are passively observing traffic--in this case, most likely with a sniffed traffic log.
What flag or flags are sent in the segment during the second step of the TCP three-way handshake? A. SYN B. ACK C. SYN/ACK D. ACK/FIN
C. SYN/ACK 1. SYN 2. SYN/ACK 3. ACK
You are port scanning a system and begin sending TCP packets with the ACK flag set. Examining return packets, you see a return packet for one port has the RST flag set and the TTL is less than 64. Which of the following is true? A. The response indicates an open port. B. The response indicates a closed port. C. The response indicates a Windows machine with a nonstandard TCP/IP stack. D. ICMP is filtered on the machine.
A. The response indicates an open port. According to ECC, if the TTL of the returned RST packet is less than 64, the port is open.
An ethical hacker is ACK scanning against a network segment he knows is sitting behind a stateful firewall. If a scan packet receives no response, what does that indicate? A. The port is filtered at the firewall. B. The port is not filtered at the firewall. C. The firewall allows the packet, but the device has the port closed. D. It is impossible to determine any port status from this response.
A. The port is filtered at the firewall. An ACK packet received by a stateful firewall will not be allowed to pass unless it was "sourced" from inside the network. No response indicates the firewall filtered that port packet and did not allow it passage.
Which flag forces a termination of communications in both directions? A. RST B. FIN C. ACK D. PSH
A. RST The RST flag forces both sides of the communications channel to stop. A FIN flag signifies an ordered close to the communications.
You are examining a host with an IP address of 52.93.24.42/20 and want to determine the broadcast address for the subnet. Which of the following is the correct broadcast address for this subnet? A. 52.93.24.255 B. 52.93.0.255 C. 52.93.32.255 D. 52.93.31.255 E. 52.93.255.255
D. 52.93.31.255 If you look at the address 52.93.24.42 in binary it looks like this: 0011000.01011101.00011000.00101010 The subnet mask given, /20, tells us only the first 20 bits count as the network ID (which cannot change if we are to stay in the same subnet), and the remaining 12 bits belong to the host. Turning off all the host bits (after the 20th) gives us our network ID: 00110100.01011101.00010000.00000000 = 52.93.16.0/20 Turning on all the host bits gives us our broadcast address: 00110100.01011101.00011111.11111111 = 52.93.31.255/20
Which port number is used by default for syslog? A. 21 B. 23 C. 69 D. 514
D. 514 Syslog uses 514 by default. Port 21 is FTP, Port 23 is Telnet, and Port 69 is TFTP.
Which of the following commands would you use to quickly identify live targets on a subnet? (Choose all that apply) A. nmap -A 172.17.24.17 B. nmap -O 172.17.24.0/24 C. nmap -sn 172.17.24.0/24 D. nmap -PI 172.17.24.0/24
C. nmap -sn subnet range and D. nmap -PI subnet range -sn = Ping scan (Disables port scanning; host discovery only) -PI = IP address discovery? (Couldn't find definition)
You're running an IDLE scan and send the first packet to the target machine. Next, the SYN/ACK packet is sent to the zombie. The IPID on the return packet from the zombie is 36754. If the starting IPID was 36753, in what state is the port on the target machine? A. Open B. Closed C. Unknown D. None of the above.
B. Closed Since the IPID incremented by only one, this means the zombie hasn't sent anything since your original SYN/ACK to figure out the starting IPID. If the IPID had increased by two, then the port would be open because the zombie would have responded to the target machine's SYN/ACK.
Which ICMP message type/code indicates the packet could not arrive at the recipient due to exceeding its time to live? A. Type 11 B. Type 3, Code 1 C. Type 0 D. Type 8
A. Type 11 A Type 11 ICMP packet indicates the TTL for the packet has reached 0; therefore it must be discarded.
An ethical hacker is sending TCP packets to a machine with the SYN flag set. None of the SYN/ACK responses on open ports is being answered. Which type of port scan is this? A. Ping sweep B. XMAS C. Stealth D. Full
C. Stealth ECC defines what most of us used to call a half-open scan as a "stealth scan," A.K.A a SYN scan.
Which of the following statements is true regarding port scanning? A. Port scanning's primary goal is to identify live targets on a network. B. Port scanning is designed to overload the ports on a target in order to identify which are open and which are closed. C. Port scanning is designed as a method to view all traffic to and from a system. D. Port scanning is used to identify potential vulnerabilities on a target system.
D. Port scanning is used to identify potential vulnerabilities on a target system. Port scanning has a singular purpose--to knock on ports and see if they're open (listening). Does an open port necessarily mean something is wrong? No, but it does represent a potential vulnerability you can exploit later.
Which of the following best describes a honeypot? A. It is used to filter traffic from screened subnets. B. It is used to gather information about potential network attackers. C. It is used to analyze traffic for detection signatures. D. Its primary function involves malware and virus protection.
B. It is used to gather information about potential network attackers. A honeypot is designed to draw attackers in so you can watch what they do, how they do it, and where they do it from.
Which of the following Wireshark filters would display all traffic sent from, or destined to, systems on the 172.17.15.0/24 subnet? (Choose all that apply) A. ip.addr == 172.17.15.0/24 B. ip.src == 172.17.15.0/24 and ip.dst == 172.17.15.0/24 C. ip.src == 172.17.15.0/24 or ip.dst == 172.17.15.0/24 D. ip.src == 172.17.15.0/24 and ip.dst == 172.17.15.0/24
A. ip.addr == 172.17.15.0/24 AND C. ip.src == 172.17.15.0/24 or ip.dst == 172.17.15.0/24 In Wireshark filter questions, always pay attention to the operators. While answer A shows any packet with the correct IP in it, anywhere, the or operator in answer C shows packets meeting both options.
Which of the following best describes active sniffing? A. Active sniffing is usually required when hubs are in place. B. Active sniffing is usually required when switches are in place. C. Active sniffing is harder to detect than passive sniffing. D. Active sniffing is easier to detect than passive sniffing.
B. Active sniffing is usually required when switches are in place. AND D. Active sniffing is easier to detect than passive sniffing. If you're on a hub, why bother with active sniffing techniques? You're already seeing everything. Also, active sniffing is much more likely to get you caught than simply plugging in a wire and sitting back.
Your client tells you that they know beyond a doubt an attacker is sending messages back and forth from their network, yet the IDS doesn't appear to be alerting on the traffic. Which of the following is most likely true? A. The attacker is sending messages over an SSL tunnel. B. The attacker has corrupted ACLs on every router in the network. C. The attacker has set up port security on network switches. D. The attacker has configured a trunk port on a switch.
A. The attacker is sending messages over an SSL tunnel. Encryption is the bane of an IDS's existence. If traffic is encrypted, the IDS is blind as a bat.
Which display filter for Wireshark shows all TCP packets containing the word facebook? A. content==facebook B. tcp contains facebook C. display==facebook D. tcp.all contains ==facebook
B. tcp contains facebook The appropriate Wireshark display filter is the following: tcp contains search-string
You are configuring rules for your Snort installation and want to have an alert message of "Attempted FTP" on any FTP packet coming from an outside address intended for one of your internal hosts. Which of the following rules are correct for this situation? A. alert tcp $EXTERNAL_NET any -> $HOME_NET 23 (msg:"Attempted FTP") B. alert tcp $EXTERNAL_NET any -> $HOME_NET 25 (msg:"Attempted FTP") C. alert tcp $EXTERNAL_NET any -> $HOME_NET 21 (msg:"Attempted FTP") D. alert tcp $HOME_NET 21 -> $EXTERNAL_NET any (msg:"Attempted FTP")
C. alert tcp $EXTERNAL_NET any -> $HOME_NET 21 (msg:"Attempted FTP") Snort rules follow the same syntax: action protocol src address src port -> dest address port (options)
What occurs when an IDS does not properly identify a malicious packet entering the network? A. False negative B. False positive C. True negative D. True positive
A. False Negative When traffic gets to the IDS, is examined, and is still let through even though it's malicious, a false negative has occurred.
Machine A (with MAC address 00-01-02-AA-BB-CC) and Machine B (00-01-02-BB-CC-DD) are on the same subnet. Machine C, with address 00-01-02-CC-DD-EE is on a different subnet. While the attacker is sniffing on the fully switched network, Machine B sends a message to Machine C. If an attacker on Machine A wanted to receive a copy of this message, which of the following circumstances would be necessary? A. The ARP cache of the router would need to be poisoned, changing the entry for Machine A to 00-01-02-CC-DD-EE. B. The ARP cache of Machine B would need to be poisoned, changing the entry for the default gateway to 00-01-02-AA-BB-CC. C. The ARP cache of Machine C would need to be poisoned, changing the entry for the default gateway to 00-01-02-AA-BB-CC. D. The ARP cache of Machine A would need to be poisoned, changing the entry for Machine C to 00-01-02-BB-CC-DD.
B. The ARP cache of Machine B would need to be poisoned, changing the entry for the default gateway to 00-01-02-AA-BB-CC. ARP poisoning is done on the machine creating the frame--the sender. Changing the default gateway entry on the sending machine results in all frames intended for an IP out of the subnet being delivered to the attacker. Changing the ARP cache on the other machine or the router is pointless.
An IDS installed on the network perimeter sees a spike in traffic during off-duty hours and begins logging and alerting. Which type of IDS is in place? A. Stateful B. Signature Based C. Anomaly Based D. Packet Filtering
C. Anomaly Based IDSs can be signature or anomaly based. Anomaly-based systems build a baseline of normal traffic patterns over time, and anything that appears outside of the baseline is flagged.
In what situation would you employ a proxy server? (Choose the best answer) A. You wish to share files inside the corporate network. B. You want to allow outside customers into a corporate website. C. You want to filter Internet traffic for internal systems. D. You want to provide IP addresses to internal hosts.
C. You want to filter Internet traffic for internal systems. There are a bunch of reasons for having a proxy. In this case, you're using it to filter traffic between internal hosts and the rest of the world. Generally speaking, proxies don't act as file servers, websites, or DHCP servers.
An attacker has successfully connected a laptop to a switch port and turned on a sniffer. The NIC is running in promiscuous mode, and the laptop is left alone for a few hours to capture traffic. Which of the following statements are true? (Choose all that apply) A. The packet capture will provide the MAC addresses of other machines connected to the switch. B. The packet capture will provide only the MAC addresses of the laptop and the default gateway. C. The packet capture will display all traffic intended for the laptop. D. The packet capture will display all traffic intended for the default gateway.
A. The packet capture will provide the MAC addresses of other machines connected to the switch. AND C. The packet capture will display all traffic intended for the laptop. Switches filter or flood traffic based on the address. Broadcast traffic, such as ARP requests and answers, is flooded to all ports. Unicast traffic, such as traffic intended for the laptop itself or the default gateway, is sent only to the port on which the machine tests.
Which of the following are appropriate active sniffing techniques against a switched network? (Choose all that apply) A. ARP poisoning B. MAC flooding C. SYN flooding D. Birthday attack E. Firewalking
A. ARP poisoning AND B. MAC flooding ARP poisoning can be used to trick a system into sending packets to your machine instead of recipients (including the default gateway). MAC flooding is an older attack used to fill a CAM table and make a switch behave like a hub.
A pen tester is configuring a WIndows laptop for a test. In setting up Wireshark, what driver and library are required to allow the NIC to work in promiscuous mode? A. libpcap B. winprom C. winpcap D. promsw
C. winpcap WinPcap is the library used for Windows devices. Libpcap is used on Linux devices for the same purpose.
Which of the following works at Layer 5 of the OSI model? A. Stateful firewall B. Packet-filtering firewall C. Circuit-level firewall D. Application-level firewall
C. Circuit-level firewall This one is tricky. Circuit-level firewalls work at Layer 5. Stateful firewalls can be said to work at Layer 5, but they're focused on Layers 3 and 4. Application works at Layer 7.
Which of the following best defines Steganography? A. Steganography is used to hide information within existing files. B. Steganography is used to create hash values of data files. C. Steganography is used to encrypt data communications, allowing files to be passed unseen. D. Steganography is used to create multimedia communication files.
A. Steganography is used to hide information within existing files. Image and video files are traditionally associated with steganography.
Which encryption standard is used by LM? A. MD5 B. SHA-1 C. DES D. SHA-2 E. 3DES
C. DES (Data Encryption Standard) LAN Manager is old and outdated, so it uses an old and outdated means for hashing files.
Which of the following would be considered a passive online password attack? A. Guessing passwords against an IPC$ share. B. Sniffing subnet traffic to intercept a password. C. Running John The Ripper on a stolen copy of the SAM file. D. Sending a specially crafted PDF to a user for that user to open.
B. Sniffing subnet traffic to intercept a password. Passive online attacks simply involve stealing passwords passed in clear text or copying the entire password exchange in the hopes of pulling off a reply or man in the middle attack.
A user on Joe's network does not need to remember a long password. Users on Joe's network log in using a token and a four digit PIN. Which authentication measure best describes this? A. Multifactor Authentication B. Three Factor Authentication C. Two Factor Authentication D. Token Authentication
C. Two Factor Authentication
Which of the following best defines a hybrid attack? A. The attack uses a dictionary list, trying words from random locations in the file until the password is cracked. B. The attack tries random combinations of characters until the password is cracked. C. The attack uses a dictionary list, substituting letters, numbers, and characters in the words until the password is cracked. D. The attack uses rainbow tables, randomly attempting hash values throughout the list until the password is cracked.
C. The hybrid attack takes a dictionary list and includes variations using numbers and special characters.
While pen-testing a client, you discover that LM hashing, with no salting, is still engaged for backward compatibility on most systems. One stolen password hash reads 9FAF6B755DC38E12AAD3B435B51404EE. Is this user following good password procedures? A. Yes, the hash shows a 14 character, complex password. B. No, the hash shows a 14 character password; however, it's not complex. C. No, the hash reveals a 7 character or less password has been used. D. It is impossible to determine simply by looking at the hash.
C. LM hashes pad a password with blank spaces to reach 14 characters, split it into two 7 character sections, and then hash both separately. Because the LM hash of seven blank characters is always AAD3B435B51404EE, you can tell from the hash that the user has used only seven or fewer characters. CEH recommends a password with a minimum of eight characters, that's complex, and that expires after 30 days. The user isn't following good policy.
Where is the SAM file stored on a Windows 7 system? A. /etc/ B. C:\Windows\System32\etc\ C. C:\Windows\System32\Config\ D. C:\Windows\System32\Drivers\Config
C. The SAM file is stored in the same folder on most Windows Machines: C:\Windows\System32\Config\
Examining a database server during routine maintenance, you discover an hour of time missing from the log file, during what would otherwise be normal operating hours. Further investigation reveals no user complaints on accessibility. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? A. The log file is simply corrupted. B. The server was compromised by an attacker. C. The server was rebooted. D. No activity occurred during the hour time frame.
B. The server was compromised by an attacker. A reboot would've shown up somewhere no users complained about it being down at all.
Which of the following can migrate the machine's actual operating system into a virtual machine? A. Hypervisor level rootkit B. Kernel level rootkit C. Virtual rootkit D. Library level rootkit
A. Hypervisor level rootkits replace your physical OS with a virtual one.
After gaining access to a Windows machine, you see the last command executed on the box looks like this: net use F: \\MATTBOX\BankFiles /persistent : yes Assuming the user had appropriate credentials, which of the following are true? (Choose all that apply) A. In Windows Explorer, a folder will appear under the root directory named BankFiles. B. In Windows Explorer, a drive will appear denoted as BankFiles (\\MATTBOX) (F:). C. The mapped drive will remain mapped after a reboot. D. The mapped drive will not remain mapped after a reboot.
B. A drive will appear denoted as BankFiles (\\MATTBOX) (F:) and C. The mapped drive will remain mapped after a reboot. The command connects to a shared folder on MATTBOX named BankFiles, and the mapping will display as a drive (F:) on the local machine. The persistent:yes portion means it will remain mapped forever, until you turn it off.
An attacker has hidden badfile.exe in the readme.txt file. Which of the following is the correct command to execute the file? A. start readme.txt>badfile.exe B. start readme.txt:badfile.exe C. start badfile.exe > readme.txt D. start badfile.exe | readme.txt
B. start readme.txt:badfile.exe This command says "Start the executable badfile.exe that's hidden in the readme.txt file."
You see the following command in a Linux history file review: someproc & Which of the following best describe the command result? (Choose two) A. The process "someproc" will stop when the user logs out. B. The process "someproc" will continue to run when the user logs out. C. The process "someproc" will run as a background task. D. The process "someproc" will prompt the user when logging off.
A. The process will stop when the user logs out. and C. The process will run as a background task. The ampersand after the command dictates that the process should run in the background. And without anything indicating a persistent process (adding nohup before the process name), it will die when the user logs out.
You are examining log files and notice several connection attempts to a hosted web server. Many attempts appear as such: http://www.example.com/%2e%2e/%2e%2e/%2e%2e/%2e%2e/%2e%2e/windows\system32\cmd.exe What type of attack is in use? A. SQL injection B. Unicode parameter tampering C. Directory traversal D. Cross-site scripting
C. The connection is attempting to traverse the directory from the Inetpub folders to a command shell for the attacker. Instead of dot-dot-slash, Unicode is used in this example to bypass potential IDS signatures.
The accounting department of a business notices several orders that seem to have been made erroneously. In researching the concern, you discover it appears the prices of items on several web orders do not match the listed prices on the public site. You verify the web server and the ordering database do not seem to have been compromised. Additionally, no alerts have displayed in the Snort logs concerning a possible attack on the web application. Which of the following might explain the attack in play? A. The attacker has copied the source code to his machine and altered hidden fields to modify the purchase price of the items. B. The attacker has used SQL injection to update the database to reflect new prices for the items. C. The attacker has taken advantage of a server-side include that altered the price. D. The attacker used Metasploit to take control of the web application.
A. In this case, because the logs and IDSs show no direct attack, it's most likely the attacker has copied the source code directly to his machine and altered the hidden "price" fields on the order form. All other types of attack would have, in some form or fashion, shown themselves easily.
A pen test team member uses the following entry at the command line: nmap --script http-methods --script-args somesystem.com Which of the following is true regarding the intent of the command? A. The team member is attempting to see which HTTP methods are supported by somesystem.com B. The team member is attempting XSS against somesystem.com C. The team member is attempting HTTP response splitting against somesystem.com D. The team member is attempting to site-mirror somesystem.com
A. The http-methods script tests a target to see what HTTP methods are supported (by sending an HTTP OPTIONS request). Why would an attacker do this? If you know what GET, POST, and PUT do then you know the answer to this question already.
You are examining IDS logs and come across the following entry: Mar 30 10:31:07 [1123}: IDS1661/NOPS-x86: 64.118.55.64:1146-> 192.168.119.56:53 What can you infer from this log entry? A. The attacker, using address 192.168.119.56, is attempting to connect to 64.118.55.64 using a DNS port. B. The attacker, using address 64.118.55.64, is attempting a directory traversal attack. C. The attacker is attempting a known SQL attack against 192.168.119.56. D. The attacker is attempting a buffer overflow against 192.168.119.56.
D. The log file shows that the NOP sled signature is being used against 192.168.119.56. There is no indication in the log file about SQL or directory traversal.
Which of the following would be the best protection against XSS attacks? A. Invest in top of the line firewalls. B. Perform vulnerability scans against your systems. C. Configure input validation on your systems. D. Have a pen test performed against your systems.
C. "Best" is always a tricky word. In this case, configuring server-side operations to validate what's being put in the input field is by far the best mitigation. Could vulnerability scans and pen tests tell you something is wrong? Sure, but by themselves they don't do anything to protect you.
Which of the following is true regarding n-tier architecture? A. Each tier must communicate openly with every other tier. B. N-tier always consists of presentation, logic, and data tiers. C. N-tier is usually implemented on one server. D. N-tier allows each tier to be configured and modified independently.
D. While usually implemented in three tiers, n-tier simply means you have three or more independently monitored, managed, and maintained collections of servers, each providing a specific service or tasking.
Which character is the best choice to start a SQL injection attempt? A. Colon B. Semicolon C. Double quote D. Single quote
D. The single quote should begin SQL injection attempts, even though in many database systems it's not always an absolute.
Which of the following is a true statement? A. Configuring the web server to send random challenge tokens is the best mitigation for XSS attacks. B. Configuring the web server to send random challenge tokens is the best mitigation for buffer overflow attacks. C. Configuring the web server to send random challenge tokens is the best mitigation for parameter manipulation attacks. D. Configuring the web server to send random challenge tokens is the best mitigation for CSRF attacks.
D. The requests from the bad guy masquerading with your session ID through your browser can be largely stopped by making sure each request has a challenge token--if the server gets one without a token, it's deemed bad and dropped.
Which of the following is a true statement? A. SOAP cannot bypass a firewall. B. SOAP encrypts messages using HTTP methods. C. SOAP is compatible with HTTP and SMTP. D. SOAP messages are usually bidirectional.
C. SOAP (Simple Object Access Protocol) is compatible with HTTP and SMTP, and usually the messages are "one way" in nature.
Question Is In The Image Due To Javascript Causing Errors On 's Site.
D. This indicates a cross-site scripting vulnerability.
SOAP (Simple Object Access Protocol) is used to package and exchange information for web services. What does SOAP use to format this information? A. XML B. HTML C. HTTP D. Unicode
A. SOAP formats its information exchange in XML.
A security administrator monitoring logs comes across a user login attempt that reads UserJoe)(&). What can you infer from this username login attempt? A. The attacker is attempting SQL injection. B. The attacker is attempting LDAP injection. C. The attacker is attempting SOAP injection. D. The attacker is attempting directory traversal.
B. The )(&) indicates an LDAP injection attempt.
A security administrator sets the HttpOnly flag in cookies. Which of the following is he most likely attempting to mitigate against? A. CSRF B. CSSP C. XSS D. Buffer Overflow E. SQL Injection
C. XSS is the only answer that makes sense. This setting prevents cookies from being accessible by a client-side script.
Your organization is deploying a new web-based software package requiring application and database support. The department has agreed on a three-server approach to make the service accessible from the Internet. Of the following choices, which would be the best option for server placement? A. A web, application, and database server on the internal network only. B. A web, application, and database server facing the Internet. C. A web server facing the Internet, and application and database server on the internal network. D. An application and database server facing the Internet, with a web server internal.
C. C is the best option since it makes the web server available for clients to access, but the back-end processes should be internal if at all possible.
A WPA2 wireless network is discovered during a pen test. Which of the following methods is the best way to crack the network key? A. Capture the WPA2 authentication traffic and crack the key. B. Capture a large amount of initialization vectors and crack the key inside. C. Use a sniffer to capture the SSID. D. WPA2 cannot be cracked.
A. WPA2 is strong, but almost everything can be hacked with enough time. Capturing the password pairwise master key (PMK) during the handshake is the best way to do it, and even then it's virtually impossible if it's a complicated password.
You are discussing wireless security with your client. He tells you that he feels safe with his network because he has turned off SSID broadcasting. Which of the following is a true statement regarding his attempt at security? A. Unauthorized users will not be able to associate because they must know the SSID in order to connect. B. Unauthorized users will not be able to connect because DHCP is tied to SSID broadcast. C. Unauthorized users will still be able to connect because nonbroadcast SSID puts the AP in ad hoc mode. D. Unauthorized users will still be able to connect because the SSID is still sent in all packets, and a sniffer can easily discern the string.
D. Turning off SSID broadcasting is a good step, but it SSIDs do nothing in terms of security. The SSID is included in every packet, regardless of whether it's broadcast from the AP.
You're discussing wireless security with your client. She tells you she feels safe with her network as she has implemented MAC filtering on all access points, allowing only MAC addresses from clients she personally configures in each list. You explain this step will not prevent a determined attacker from connecting to her network. Which of the following explains why the APs are still vulnerable? A. WEP keys are easier to crack when MAC filtering is in place. B. MAC addresses are dynamic and can be sent via DHCP. C. An attacker could sniff an existing MAC address and spoof it. D. An attacker could send a MAC flood, effectively turning the AP into a hub.
C. MAC filtering is easily hacked by sniffing the network for a valid MAC and then spoofing it, using any number of options available.
What information is required in order to attempt to crack a WEP AP? (Choose Two) A. Network SSID. B. MAC address of the AP. C. IP address of the AP. D. Starting sequence number in the first initialization vector.
A. & B. The MAC address of the AP and the SSID are required for attempting a WEP crack.
Whcih of the following protects against man-in-the-middle attacks in WPA? A. MIC B. CCMP C. EAP D. AES
A. MIC (Message Integrity Codes) MIC provides integrity checking in WPA, verifying frames are authentic and haven't been tampered with. Part of how it accomplishes this is a sequence number--if any frames arrive out of sequence, the whole session is dropped.
Which of the following is the best choice for detecting wireless LANs using the 802.11a/b/g/n WLAN standards on a Linux platform? A. Kismet B. Nessus C. NetStumbler D. Cain and Abel
A. Kismet Kismet is your best option here, as the other tools simply don't fit the bill.
A user calls with a problem. Her laptop uses the same hardware and software as many of the other clients on the network, and she can see the wireless network, but cannot connect. You run a sniffer, and results show the WAP is not responding to the association requests being sent by the wireless client. Of the following choices, which is the most likely source of the problem? A. The wireless client does not use DHCP. B. The wireless client is on the wrong wireless channel. C. The WAP has MAC filtering engaged and doesn't recognize the MAC. D. SSID security is preventing the connection.
C. MAC filtering is probably the issue here. With the hardware and software that's set up, it's probably not a channel issue and no other answer makes sense.
Which of the following provides for integrity in WPA2? A. AES B. CCMP C. TKIP D. RADIUS
B. CCMP Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol uses message integrity codes (MICs) for integrity purposes.
Which of the following is a true statement? A. Configuring a strong SSID is a vital step in securing your network. B. An SSID should always be more than eight characters in length. C. An SSID should never be a dictionary word or anything easily guessed. D. SSIDs are important for identifying networks but do little to nothing for security.
D. An SSID is nothing more than a name for a network. It's not a security measure.
Which wireless technology uses RC4 for encryption? A. WAP B. WPA C. WEP D. WPA2 E. All of the above.
C. WEP WEP using RC4 is part of the reason why it's so easily hacked and not considered secure.
Which wireless encryption technology makes use of temporal keys? A. WAP B. WPA C. WEP D. EAP
B. WPA WPA using temporal keys makes it a much stronger encryption choice than WEP.
Which of the following attacks acts as a man in the middle, exploiting fallback mechanisms in TLS clients? A. POODLE B. Heartbleed C. FREAK D. DROWN
A. POODLE In a POODLE attack, the man in the middle interrupts all handshake attempts by TLS clients, forcing a degradation to a vulnerable SSL version.
RC4 is a simple, fast encryption cipher. Which of the following is not true regarding RC4? A. RC4 can be used for web encryption. B. RC4 uses block encryption. C. RC4 is a symmetric encryption cipher. D. RC4 can be used for file encryption.
B. RC4 uses block encryption. RC4 is a simple, fast, symmetric stream cipher. It can be used for almost everything you can imagine an encryption cipher could be used for (you can even find it in WEP).
An organization has decided upon AES with a 256-bit key to secure data exchange. What is the primary consideration for this? A. AES is slow. B. The key size makes data exchange bulky and complex. C. It uses a shared key for encryption. D. AES is a weak cypher.
C. It uses a shared key for encryption. AES is a symmetric algorithm, which means that the same key is used for encryption and decryption. The organization will have to find a secured means to transmit the key to both parties before any data exchange.
Joe and Bob are both ethical hackers and have gained access to a folder. Joe has several encrypted files from the folder, and Bob has found one of them unencrypted. Which of the following is the best attack vector for them to follow. A. Cipher text only. B. Known Plaintext C. Chosen Cipher Text D. Replay
B. Known Plaintext In a known plaintext attack, the hacker has both plaintext and cipher text messages; the plain text copies are scanned for repeatable sequences, which are then compared to the cipher text versions. Over time, and with effort, this can be used to decipher the key.
You are reviewing security plans and policies, and wish you to provide protection to organization laptops. Which effort listed protects system folders, files, and MBR until valid credentials are provided at pre-boot? A. Cloud Computing B. SSL/TLS C. Full Disk Encryption D. AES
C. Full Disk Encryption FDE is the appropriate control for data at rest protection. Pre-boot Authentication provides protection against loss or theft.
Which of the following is used to distribute a public key within the PKI system, verifying the user's identity to the recipient? A. Digital signature B. Hash value C. Private key D. Digital Certificate
D. Digital Certificate A digital certificate contains, among other things, the sender's public key, and it can be used to identify the sender.
A hacker feeds plaintext files into a hash, eventually finding two or more that create the same fixed-value hash result. This anomaly is known as what? A. Collision B. Chosen plaintext C. Hash value compromise D. Known plaintext
A. Collision When two or more plaintext entries create the same fixed value hash result, a collision has occurred.
An attacker uses a Metasploit auxiliary exploit to send a series of small messages to a server at regular intervals. The server responds with 64kb of data from its memory. Which of the following best describes the attack being used? A. POODLE B. Heartbleed C. FREAK D. DROWN
B. Heartbleed Heartbleed takes advantage of the data echoing acknowledgement heartbeat in SSL. OpenSSL version 1.0.1 through Version 1.0.1f are vulnerable to this attack.
Which of the following statements is true regarding encryption algorithms? A. Symmetric algorithms are slower, are good for bulk encryption, and have no scalability problems. B. Symmetric algorithms are faster, are good for bulk encryption, and have no scalability problems. C. Symmetric algorithms are faster, are good for bulk encryption, but have scalability problems. D. Symmetric algorithms are faster but have scalability problems and are not suited for bulk encryption.
C. Symmetric algorithms are faster, are good for bulk encryption, but have scalability problems.
Within a PKI system, Julia encrypts a message for Heidi and sends it. Heidi receives the message and decrypts the message using what? A. Julia's public key B. Julia's private key C. Heidi's public key D. Heidi's private key
D. Heidi's private key. Heidi's public key is used to encrypt the message. her private key is used to decrypt it.
Which of the following is a symmetric encryption method that transforms a fixed-length amount of plain text into an encrypted version of the same length? A. Stream B. Block C. Bit D. Hash
B. Block Block encryption takes a fixed-length block of plaintext and converts it to an encrypted block of the same length.
Which symmetric algorithm uses variable block sizes (from 32 to 128 bits)? A. DES B. 3DES C. RC D. MD5
C. RC (Rivest's Cipher/Ron's Code) Rivest Cipher uses variable block sizes (from 32 to 128 bits)
Which hash algorithm produces a 160-bit output value? A. SHA-1 B. SHA-2 C. Diffie-Hellman D. MD5
A. SHA-1 SHA-1 produces a 160-bit output value.
Two different organizations have their own public key infrastructure up and running. When the two companies merged, security personnel wanted both PKIs to validate certificates from each other. What must the CAs for both companies establish to accomplish this? A. Key Exchange portal B. Key Revocation portal C. Cross-Site Exchange D. Cross-Certification
D. Cross-Certification When PKIs need to talk to one another and trust certificates from either side, the CAs need to set up a mutual trust known as cross-certification.
Within a PKI, which of the following verifies the applicant? A. Registration Authority B. User authority C. Revocation authority D. Primary authority
A. Registration Authority A registration authority (RA) validates an applicant into the system, making sure they are real, valid, and allowed to use the system.
Which of the following is a software application used to asymmetrically encrypt and digitally sign e-mail? A. PGP B. SSL C. PPTP D. HTTPS
A. PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) is used for signing, compression, and encrypting and decrypting e-mails, files, directories, and even whole disk partitions, mainly in an effort to increase the security of e-mail communications.
Looking for a different version?
CBTs get updated every year. Search for the exact version you're taking (e.g. "cyber awareness 2025").
Search all study materials