Air Transportation Afsc
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d. When the passenger arrives at the security/inspection area.
1. (401) During an anti-hijacking inspection, when will you brief passengers that prohibited carry-on items must be placed in their check baggage or they will be confiscated?
d. The aircraft commander will provide an inspection and give the required documentation to passenger service personnel.
2. (401) If an authorized distinguished visitor (DV) will be going directly to the aircraft and not through the passenger terminal for travel, how will this passenger receive an antihijack inspection?
b. When engaging an enemy force immediately after airdropping or landing.
3. (401) During an anti-hijacking inspection, when may passengers traveling on validated troop movements carry loaded firearms?
d. empty their pockets into a small tray.
4. (402) Before passengers walk through the magnetometer, they must
b. Screen them using the hand-held metal detector.
5. (402) When an individual activates the walk-through magnetometer twice, what action should you take?
c. Tell the passenger why and how you will conduct the inspection.
6. (402) What is the first thing you should do when operating the hand-held metal detectors to inspect passengers?
a. head, followed by the outline of the body, the front, and then the back.
7. (402) During an anti-hijacking inspection with the hand-held metal detector, you would begin by scanning a passenger's
d. before you re-scan the area the item was removed from, and then have them enter the walk-through magnetometer.
8. (402) When inspecting passengers with the hand-held metal detector and it locates metal, you must have them remove the metal item,
c. consenting to a frisk by security forces personnel or sign an anti-hijacking waiver.
9. (402) When you are unable to detect the source that set off the alarm on the hand-held magnetometer, passengers have the choice of
a. Calibration and a significant warm up.
10. (402) To operate properly, what do most explosives detection devices require before you use them?
b. you notice anything suspicious or find an undeclared weapon or other dangerous article.
11. (402) You should activate the duress alarm if
a. Internal and external.
12. (403) What are the two types of customers?
a. Dressing and grooming yourself appropriately.
13. (403) What is one way to communicate nonverbally to your customers that you are professional, respectful, and can be relied upon for accurate and complete information?
b. Two or three minutes.
14. (403) You should check back with a customer after how many minutes when placing them on hold?
b. comment on the service they received while traveling within AMC.
15. (403) The Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 253 and AMC IMT 19 are used for passengers to
b. Prepare yourself so you know exactly which information you need to brief them about the subject.
16. (404) What is the first step in briefing passengers?
d. Seek help from your supervisor.
17. (404) When briefing passengers, if they have questions and you don't know the answer, what should you do?
c. a leave form or pass, official military orders, a passport, visas, and vaccination records only.
18. (404) When briefing passengers on travel restrictions, documents you will ensure they possess if required include a valid photo identification (ID) card,
d. 20 minutes.
19. (405) When making a flight information announcement about a departing flight that has been delayed, you should update passengers every
a. Your rank, name, mission number, and destination of the flight.
20. (405) When making a roll call announcement, which information should you give passengers first?
d. issued official travel orders under emergency leave conditions.
21. (406) When checking the travel category to determine travel eligibility, one way dependents and family members are authorized to travel in space-required status is when they are
a. Name, grade, and social security number.
22. (406) When verifying transportation authorizations for space-required passengers, what information should you check against the passenger's identification (ID) card of someone who is traveling on permanent change of station (PCS) orders?
d. presence, currency, accuracy, and completeness.
23. (406) After determining travel eligibility for space-required passengers, to check travel clearances, you must determine if the passenger is eligible to travel to the destination by checking the required documents such as passports, visas, and immunization records for
a. CONUS to CONUS only.
24. (407) If active duty Air Force SSgt James Curtis is traveling with emergency status annotated on his leave form, which of the following Continental United States (CONUS) or overseas unfunded travel options is SSgt Curtis eligible for?
c. Category III.
25. (407) During the task of determining eligibility for space-available travel, under which travel category may uniformed service members travel while on permissive temporary duty (TDY) orders for house hunting?
b. traveling in conjunction with the death of a family member.
26. (408) A passenger can be categorized as a Blue Bark passenger when the passenger is
c. a differently-abled passenger.
27. (408) When a passenger is too large to be safely restrained in a single aircraft seat using a single seatbelt, handle him or her as you would
a. An infant less than six weeks old and women who are less than six weeks postpartum.
28. (408) Which special category situation would cause a passenger to need a medical doctor's certification to be medically sound to travel?
c. 0500 GMT.
29. (408) If a mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) passenger wants to travel on a specific mission that departs at 0800 Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), when is the latest time the MEGP can notify the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) of that intention?
d. AMC Form 140.
30. (409) Before space-available passengers can be entered into the space-available register, which form must they complete?
c. Line through the passenger's register entry.
31. (409) When maintaining a space-required standby listing, if there are passengers that remain on the listing who have already been selected for missions or are no longer in need of airlift, how should you mark the listing?
a. 22 Feb 09/0800.
32. (409) While updating and maintaining the space-available standby listing on 23 Apr 09, which passenger with the following date and time of sign-up will you purge from the listing?
b. Space-required, priority 1 passenger with a date and time of sign-up of 1 May 09 at 0700.
33. (409) While selecting passengers for a flight, which would you select first?
b. skip the passenger's name and continue with the selection process.
34. (409) If a space-available passenger is not present for a roll call, you should
c. Two copies; one to the passenger and one for passenger service records.
35. (410) When preparing the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 148/2, Boarding Pass/Ticket/Receipt, how many copies will you complete and how are they distributed?
a. anti-hijacking measures have been conducted.
36. (410) When preparing the Department of Defense (DD) Form 2131, Passenger Manifest, when individuals enter their name, grade, signature and date in the manifest certification blocks, they are certifying that
d. 0930 to 1445.
37. (411) When preparing in-flight meal requests, you would offer passengers a lunch meal if the aircraft will be in the air from
d. One meal.
38. (411) When preparing an in-flight meal request, how many meals would you offer passengers if the flight is eight hours long and covers one meal period?
b. Consumption factors from previously flown missions along the same route and the actual number of passengers manifested only.
39. (411) When preparing an in-flight meal request, which factors will you use to plan the amount of snacks and beverages you will need for a given flight?
a. 0715; 0815.
40. (411) While you are passing meal orders to the in-flight kitchen for a C-5 that departs at 1015, what is the latest time you can pass a tentative and final meal order of 61 meals?
d. The meal costs from the passengers' AMC Form 148/2s or from each of the blocks in section V of the AMC Form 162.
41. (411) When completing the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 162, In-flight Meal Supplemental Worksheet, from which two sources can you get the information to compute the total amount of monies collected from the passengers?
a. Passengers' AMC Form 148/2s.
42. (411) When preparing the AMC Form 162, In-flight Meal Supplemental Worksheet, from which source document will you get the information to enter the line numbers, type of meal, and passenger costs in section V?
d. Space-available passenger traveling on a commercial-contracted aircraft.
43. (412) When determining head tax charges for passengers, in which of the following circumstances will you charge the tax for a passenger traveling from McGuire Air Force Base, NJ to Ramstein Air Base, Germany?
c. does not exceed 70 pounds.
44. (412) When determining pet shipping charges, you will charge a passenger for one excess baggage piece when the combined container and pet weight
b. Determine the total pieces to charge.
45. (412) What is the first step in determining pet shipping charges?
c. Balance your cash drawer by taking out all the money you collected during your shift.
46. (412) What is the first step when turning in cash collections?
a. Sign the boarding pass to show that you initiated the refund.
47. (412) What is the last step when giving a passenger a refund?
c. 1620.
48. (413) If you are loading passengers on a C-17 that departs at 1630, at what time should the last passenger be loaded on the aircraft to protect against mission delays?
c. space-available distinguished visitor traveling on ordinary leave.
49. (413) When you are downloading passengers off of a C-5, the first passenger you would allow to deplane first would be a
a. 24 hours.
50. (414) If a passenger originating out of your station on emergency leave was manifested on the 03R1 mission (which has been delayed), how many hours do you have to move that passenger?
c. meals, lodging, and transportation only.
51. (414) If a commercial-contracted has been delayed for aircraft maintenance issues and won't be fixed until the next day, the carrier is responsible (at no cost to the passengers) to provide
b. AMC Form 20-EL.
52. (415) You are checking in baggage for a passenger traveling on emergency leave, which Air Mobility Command (AMC) baggage tag strap should you attach to that passenger's bags?
a. Remove that passenger's baggage from the aircraft.
53. (415) After you have completed your final headcount on the aircraft and discover you are missing one passenger who is listed on the manifest, what is your next step?
c. Mark them with the mission number and transfer them to the lost and found section.
54. (415) When receiving baggage from a terminating flight in the baggage claim area, if you discover two unclaimed articles 30 minutes after the last passenger has claimed his or her baggage, what is your next step?
b. 3.
55. (415) When pre-booked pets are accepted in soft-sided containers, what is the maximum number of pets allowed in the cabin?
a. Cross-reference the passenger manifest to make sure the passenger was manifested on the flight.
56. (416) If a passenger has just reported a mishandled bag to you but cannot provide the boarding pass or baggage claim checks, what is your next step?
a. 3; retain in the AMC Form 136 or forward to the Baggage Service Center (BSC) after five days.
57. (416) A passenger has just reported a lost bag to you and you are preparing an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 134, Mishandled Baggage Report. In how many copies will you prepare the form and to whom does the original go?
c. D-009.
58. (416) When you are preparing an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 134, Mishandled Baggage Report, for a damaged bag, which of the following would represent a valid case number for a damaged bag?
d. copies of the boarding pass, baggage tags, or flight manifest.
59. (416) Once you have prepared an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 136, Baggage Mishandled Report File, the documents you must include in this form before you send the file to the Baggage Service Center (BSC) are the original AMC Form 134,
c. 5 days.
60. (417) If you are at the station where a passenger reported a lost bag on 23 April 12, how much time do you have to find the lost baggage and update the remarks section on Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 134, Mishandled Baggage Report before only the Baggage Service Center (BSC) will assume responsibility for the claim?
c. Present it to customs officials for clearance and reflect this action on the AMC Form 134.
61. (417) When you discover a found bag, what must you do before you secure the baggage? a. Tag it with an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 20-ID with the case number on the form.
d. Determine from the passenger if the pilfered articles are actually missing or simply misplaced.
62. (417) If a passenger has reported a pilfered bag, what must you do before you file the report?
b. List all articles reported missing and the estimated value of each.
63. (417) If a bag is excessively damaged and articles from it have become lost or missing, what must you do after annotating the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 134 with the necessary statement?
a. AMC Form 57 and AMC Form 70.
64. (417) After you have determined who the owner is for a particular item, which two forms will you use to send it to them as soon as possible?
d. 25 Apr 12 at 1400.
65. (417) If you sent a piece of RUSH baggage to Elmendorf AFB, Alaska, on 23 Apr 12 at 1400 and you have not received confirmation that they received the bag, when is the latest you should follow-up with them to receive confirmation?
c. Air transportable gally/lavatory.
66. (418) Which item is placed on three-point dunnage, a 463L pallet dolly, or a suitable roller system in order to prevent damage?
a. AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist.
67. (419) When you are tasked to load non-expendable supplies on an Air Mobility Command (AMC) C-5, which form should you use?
a. Turn it into the passenger terminal's lost and found or Security Forces.
68. (419) If you are servicing an arriving aircraft and notice a personal item left by a passenger, what action must you take?
a. person recording the information, the Julian date, and start and complete times.
69. (420) When recording the various Fleet Service activities on an AMC Form 244, such as "latrine serviced by," you should include the initials of the
d. The Fleet Service shift supervisor.
70. (420) As a Fleet Service dispatcher, after you have completed and signed an AMC Form 244, Fleet Service Arrival/Departure Worksheet, who else needs to sign it before it can be turned into records?
b. Remove the dirty racks, clean the oven interior, install clean racks and ensure the oven is operational.
71. (421) Which describes the proper way to clean and service an oven?
d. spouts will be covered in plastic.
72. (421) When you are picking up clean and filled 5-gallon igloos and coffee jugs from the flight kitchen to take to an aircraft, in order for them to remain clean, you must ensure the
b. Verify you have every item listed on the form.
73. (422) What must you do before you print and sign your name on the AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer, when picking up meals from the flight kitchen?
d. 0715.
74. (422) If a C-17 blocks out at 0800, after what timeframe would aircrew be required to pick up their own meals?
d. Fleet Service personnel and aircrew members.
75. (422) After you have delivered meals to a C-5, who will stow those meals in the galley or air transportable galley lavatory (ATGL) storage areas?
b. After USDA inspection and approval, place them in two plastic bags and incinerate or sterilize them at an approved facility.
76. (422) You are stationed at McChord AFB, WA, and a flight just arrived from Kadena AB, Japan that has unused meals onboard. What must you do with these meals?
b. water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity.
77. (423) When servicing an aircraft with potable water, you should fill the aircraft water tank until the
b. gauge indicates that it is full or 39 gallons, whichever comes first.
78. (423) When servicing the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) water tank, you should fill it with potable water until the
d. 11 gallons.
79. (424) How much water or solution do you use to rinse and fill the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) waste tank?
d. Greenwich Mean Time (GMT).
80. (425) When completing the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, times are recorded in
b. review it for accuracy and content and signs it.
81. (425) Before a manually completed mission's Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, is forwarded to the Records, Reports, and Analysis section, the shift supervisor will
b. Squadron commander.
82. (426) Who is responsible for gathering, processing, and disseminating ALL information pertaining to air terminal operations?
d. aircraft commander.
83. (426) Information control ensures that documentation is distributed to respective terminal work centers and that originals are forwarded to the
b. their names.
84. (427) When loadmasters sign the hazardous brief sheet, below their signature they must legibly print
c. GMT and Julian date.
85. (427) When retrieving the manual inbound cargo manifest from an arriving aircraft, which format will the ramp controller use to annotate aircraft block time in the upper right-hand corner?
c. Deliver documentation to and from the aircraft.
86. (428) Which is not a function of capability forecasting?
b. 24 hours.
87. (428) What is the maximum time allowed prior to the mission's departure for aerial port of embarkation (APOE) cape forecasters to request port-to-port clearance for air shipment of explosives?
d. determine if a force has reached its destination and ready to perform its mission.
88. (429) Intransit Visibility (ITV) provides commanders the capability to
c. Inspector.
89. (430) What hazardous materials qualification must load planners have?
b. AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet.
90. (431) Which type of load plan are users authorized to use when they do not have Automated Air Load Planning System (AALPS)/Integrated Computerized Deployment System (ICODES) capability?
d. Safety of flight.
91. (431) What must remain the highest priority when load planning cargo?
c. Six.
92. (432) At a minimum, how many copies of each manifest must load planning produce?
a. DD Form 1385, Cargo Manifest.
93. (432) Which form would you use when you need to manually manifest cargo?
a. AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice.
94. (432) Which form do you attach to the manual manifest when the pallet header data is listed in the body of the manifest?
a. an ATOC representative is required to make additional trips to an aircraft during
95. (433) Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) personnel prepare the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandled Workload when
a. property disposition office for filing.
96. (433) After reviewing Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandled Workload, section leadership will forward it to the
a. Conduct a physical search of the warehouse and cargo yard.
97. (434) If a shipper has called looking for a shipment when your computers are down, how will you locate the shipment?
b. Transportation control number (TCN) or pallet ID.
98. (434) When conducting tracer action in the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES), which shipment information will enter into the system to track the cargo?
a. One current year plus one inactive fiscal year as permanent at the base staging area.
99. (435) How long do you maintain transportation documentation that pertains to military originating, terminating, and intransit airlift?
d. Julian date beginning with the start of the fiscal year.
100. (435) When maintaining transportation documentation, a consolidated file package (CFP) is filed
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