Afman 17 1301
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The ____________ ensures the appropriate operational security posture is maintained for Air Force Information Technology under their purview.
Information System Security Officer (ISSO)
List four duties of the ISSO
Assist the ISSM in meeting their duties and responsibilities. Implement and enforce all DoD IS and PIT systems cybersecurity policies and procedures. Ensure that all users have the requisite security clearances and access authorizations before granting access. In coordination with the ISSM, initiate protective or corrective measures when cybersecurity incidents or vulnerabilities are discover and ensure reporting process is initialize for potential threats and vulnerabilities.
For what three programs do Organizational Commanders maintain responsibility?
Computer Security (COMPUSEC) Program Communications Security (COMSEC) Program TEMPEST Program Management
List two administrative cybersecurity functions of the Cybersecurity Liaison/Commanders Support Staff.
• Verify user compliance with annual DoD Cyber Awareness Challenge training. • Maintain AFNet network access documentation. 1-6 • Assist the WCO with administrative cybersecurity functions (administrative tasking orders, in/out-processing checklists, distribute user-training materials, etc.). • Conduct annual unit/organization self-assessments utilizing AFMAN 17- 1301, COMPUSEC SAC located in the IG MICT.
The ____________ implements and enforces AFNet account management and Computer Security administrative processes and procedures.
organization, Cybersecurity Liaisons, Commander Support Staff, CSL, CSS
The Cybersecurity Liaison/Commanders Support Staff (formerly known as the Information Assurance Officer (IAO), performs administrative cybersecurity functions of verifying user compliance with ____________ on a/an ____________ basis.
DoD Cyber Awareness Challenge training annual
Within the DIACAP process, ____________ refers to "the technical evaluation of a system's security components and their compliance for the purpose of accreditation?
Certification
Define the term "Accreditation" in regard to the DIACAP process.
the formal acceptance of risk associated with operating an information system, given its known IA posture
What is the objective of AF Assessment and Authorization?
to ensure IA for all AF procured Information Systems and guest systems operating on or accessed from the AF-GIG
The ____________ maintains visibility of the cybersecurity posture of the AF SCI and the DoD portion of the Intelligence Mission Area IT through automated assessment and authorization tools.
Deputy Chief of Staff, Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (AF/A2)
The __________ develops, implements, maintains, and enforces the AF Cybersecurity Program and the RMF process, roles, and responsibilities.
Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)
The ISO is responsible for the overall procurement, ____________ , integration, ______________ , or operation and maintenance of AF IT.
development, modification
The acceptable level of risk is determined by the ____________, who considers the full range of vulnerabilities and security implications to include the actual loss if an unauthorized entity extracts the residual information, the threat directed against this information, the threat of recovery, and the potential for damage.
ISO
The ____________ ensures operational systems maintain a current ATO and recommend to the AO that systems without a current authorization are identified for removal from operation and ensures all system changes are approved through a configuration management process and system changes are assessed for cybersecurity impacts.
Program Manager (PM)
The____________ is a licensed organization which may be contracted by the PM to assist in assessment activities and provides an independent report for the SCA.
Agent of the Security Control Assessor (ASCA)
The ____________ is the individual or organization representing the operational and functional requirements of the user community for a particular system during the RMF process.
User Representative (UR)
Accreditation decisions is based on a balance of?
Mission or business need Protection of personal privacy Protection of the information being processed Protection of the information environment Protection of other missions or business functions reliant on the shared information environment.
Accreditation decisions always apply to a specific identified DoD IS. These decision are expressed by what four documents?
Authorization to Operate (ATO), an Interim Authorization to Operate (IATO), an Interim Authorization to Test (IATT), or a Denial Authorization to Operate (DATO)
A/An ____________ indicates a DoD IS has adequately implemented all assigned IA controls, requirements, and safeguards to the point where residual risk is acceptable to the AO.
Authorization to Operate (ATO)
An ____________ accreditation decision is intended to manage IA security weaknesses while allowing system operation.
Interim Authorization to Operate (IATO)
The ____________ accreditation decision is a special case for authorizing testing in an operational information environment or with live data for a specified time period.
Interim Authorization to Test (IATT)
A ____________ is an AO decision that a DoD IS cannot operate because of an inadequate IA design, failure to adequately implement assigned IA controls, or other lack of adequate security.
Denial of Authorization to Operate (DATO)
Connection approval decisions are limited to a/an ____________ and a ____________.
Authorization to Connect (ATC) and a Denial of Authorization to Connect (DATC)
Security controls are the____________, ____________, and ____________ controls (i.e., safeguards or countermeasures) prescribed for information systems to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the system and its information.
management, operational, and technical controls
Security controls fall into a security category which is the characterization of information or an information system based on an assessment of the potential impact that a loss of ____________, ____________, or ____________ of such information or information system would have on organizational operations, organizational assets, or individuals.
confidentiality, integrity, or availability
There are three distinctive types of designations related to the security controls that define the scope of applicability for the control; the shared nature of the control; and the responsibility for control development, implementation, assessment, and authorization. These designations include __________controls, __________controls, and __________controls.
common controls, system-specific controls, and hybrid controls
____________ are security controls that can support multiple information systems efficiently and effectively as a common capability.
Common Controls
____________ are security controls that provide a security capability for a particular information system only and are the primary responsibility of information system owners and their respective authorizing officials.
System-Specific Controls
___________ are security controls where one part of the control is common and another part of the control is system-specific.
Hybrid Controls
____________ is United States legislation defining a comprehensive framework to protect government information, operations and assets against ____________ or man-made threats.
FISMA; natural
The security status of an enterprise's networks, information, and systems based on information assurance (IA) resources (e.g., people, hardware, software, policies) and capabilities in place to manage the defense of the enterprise and to react as the situation changes.
Security Posture
A measure of the extent to which an entity is threatened by a potential circumstance or event, and typically a function of: (i) the adverse impacts that would arise if the circumstance or event occurs; and (ii) the likelihood of occurrence
Risk
Hardware, software, and relevant documentation for an information system at a given point in time.
Baseline
A set of system resources that operate in the same security domain and that share the protection of a single, common, continuous security perimeter.
Enclave
1. Perimeter network segment that is logically between internal and external networks. Its purpose is to enforce the internal network's Information Assurance (IA) policy for external information exchange and to provide external, untrusted sources with restricted access to releasable information while shielding the internal networks from outside attacks. 2. A host or network segment inserted as a "neutral zone" between an organization's private network and the Internet. Source: NIST SP 800-45 Ver 2 3. An interface on a routing firewall that is similar to the interfaces found on the firewall's protected side. Traffic moving between the DMZ and other interfaces on the protected side of the firewall still goes through the firewall and can have firewall protection policies applied.
Demilitarized Zone
An organization with a defined mission/goal and a defined boundary, using information systems to execute that mission, and with responsibility for managing its own risks and performance. An enterprise may consist of all or some of the following business aspects: acquisition, program management, financial management (e.g., budgets), human resources, security, and information systems, information and mission management.
Enterprise
Mutual agreement among participating enterprises to accept each other's security assessments in order to reuse information system resources and/or to accept each other's assessed security posture in order to share information.
Reciprocity
____________ is an online, web-based resource that provides guidance and tools for implementing and executing the RMF.
Knowledge Service (KS)
Threats to information and information systems include __________, _______________, ____________________.
environmental disruptions, human or machine errors, and purposeful attacks.
____________ management tasks begin as soon as possible to apply security controls in the design, development, and acquisition of an IS, continuing through operations and sustainment.
Life Cycle management tasks
RMF activities being initiated at program or system inception through ____________.
decommissioning
What are the Six RMF steps?
Categorize • Select. • Implement • Assess • Authorize • Monitor
DoDIT is any technology ____________, ____________, ____________, ____________ or ____________ DoD information
receiving, processing, storing, displaying, or transmitting
DoD IT is broadly grouped as DoD IS ____________, ____________, and IT Products
platform IT (PIT), IT services
___________ are individual IT hardware or software items
IT products
____________ can be commercial or government provided and includes, but is not limited to, operating systems, office productivity software, firewalls, and routers
IT Products
____________ is a capability provided to one or more DoD entities by an ____________ or external provider based on the use of information technology and that supports a DoD mission or business process.
IT services ; internal
____________ agreements describe the roles and responsibilities of both the providing and the receiving organization. This type of IT service is considered an Internal IT service.
written
___________ is IT, both ____________ and ____________, which is physically part of, dedicated to, or essential in real time to the mission performance of ____________ systems.
Platform Information Technology: hardware and software; special purpose
____________ agreements or government statements of work for these external services must contain requirements for service level agreements (SLAs) including the application of appropriate security controls. This type of IT service is considered an External IT service.
Interagency
The term "platform" includes, but is not limited to Aircraft, ____________, Ship, Submarine, , Base Power Plants, ____________, Remotely Operated Vehicle, as well as ____________ in the field.
space systems; Ground Vehicles (such as HMMWVs, and Tanks); Airman
Identify, report, and correct information and information system flaws in a timely manner. This includes providing protection from malicious code at appropriate locations within organizational information systems.
System Information and Integrity
Monitor, control, and protect organizational communications (i.e., information transmitted or received by organizational information systems) at the external boundaries and key internal boundaries of the information systems.
System and Communications Protection
Limit physical access to information systems, equipment, and the respective operating environments to authorized individuals. Protect the physical plant and support infrastructure for information systems. Protect information systems against environmental hazards.
Physical and Environmental Protection
Organizations must limit information system access to authorized users, processes acting on behalf of authorized users, or devices (including other information systems) and to the types of transactions and functions that authorized users are permitted to exercise.
Access Control
Ensure individuals occupying positions of responsibility within organizations (including third-party service providers) are trustworthy and meet established security criteria for those positions. Ensure organizational information and information systems are protected during and after personnel actions such as terminations and transfers.
Personnel Security
Name five documents the 624 OC uses to relay USCYBERCOM orders?
Cyber Tasking Orders (CTOs), Cyber Control Orders (CCOs), Time Compliance Network Orders (TCNOs), Maintenance Tasking Orders (MTOs), or Special Instructions (SPINS)
The _____________ plans, coordinates, integrates, synchronizes and conducts activities to: direct the operations and defense of specified Department of Defense information networks and; prepare to, and when directed, conduct full spectrum military ____________ _____________ in order to enable actions in all domains, ensure US/Allied freedom of action in cyberspace and deny the same to our adversaries.
United States Cyber Command (USCYBERCOM); cyberspace operations
A routine task that enhances network security with a medium to low risk associated with the task.
AF MTO
Used to disseminate network information that does not direct specific action to be taken or compliance to be tracked.
C4 NOTAM
Operational type orders issued to perform specific actions at specific time frames in support of AF and Joint requirements.
AF CTO
Provide amplifying instructions for planning, execution, and assessment of AF CTOs and CCOs.
AF SPINS
Used to build/shape the portion of cyberspace to be employed in support of a Combatant Command (CCMD) operation or in response to adversary action.
AF CCO
Provide a standardized mechanism to issue a single order to the entire AFNETOPS hierarchy, directing how to operate and make changes to the AF Enterprise Network
TCNO
The Commander of _______________ as the responsibility for the overall command and control, security, and defense of the AF Information Networks (AFIN).
AF Space Command
In the base-level communications squadron's NCC, the _____________ is the combination of the Maintenance Operations Center, telephone helpdesk, and the traditional network helpdesk functions.
Comm Focal Point (CFP)
The base Communications Focal Point monitors performance of the ____________ network and serves as the conduit for implementing cyber orders.
local
T/F Access to AF ISs is a revocable privilege and is granted to individuals based on need to know.
True
All ____________ users (e.g., military, civilian, contractor, temporary employees, volunteers, interns, key spouses, and American Red Cross personnel) must complete Cyber Awareness Challenge training prior to being granted access to an IS.
authorized
The ____________ consult the Host or MAJCOM FDO and applicable ISSM before authorizing access by FN/LN users to ISs processing, storing, or transmitting classified and controlled unclassified information (CUI).
WCOs
Prior to permitting Foreign/Local national personnel access, the MAJCOM FDO determines authorized and privileged need-to-know for the ____________ and ____________ of information, software, hardware and firmware to include controlled unclassified information (CUI) and classified information
administrative access and control
The ____________ tracks and maintains visibility over all FN/LN billets assigned to an IS and/or organization.
Cybersecurity Liaison
T/F Temporary employees and volunteers (including key spouses) must meet the requirements of all authorized users. Grant only Classified IS access to temporary employees and volunteer personnel in support of their assigned duties.
False; Grant only unclassified IS access to temporary employees and volunteer personnel in support of their assigned duties.
Give an example of a proper messaging naming convention of a FN/LN.
john.smith.uk@us.af.mil
Public users accessing an IS intermittently (i.e., vendors, morale support, technical support, etc.) have only ____________ access.
non-privileged
All authorized users should protect networked and/or stand-alone ISs against ____________, _____________, and ____________.
tampering, theft, and loss
Protect ISs from insider and outsider threats by controlling ____________ to the facilities and data by implementing procedures identified in Joint, DoD, AF publications, and organizationally created procedures
physical access
List five examples of removable media.
flash media devices (such as memory sticks, thumb drives, and camera memory cards, and similar USB storage devices), compact disks (CD), digital video disks (DVD), and external hard disk drives.
T/F Configure removable media and related peripherals using physical or software configuration settings to enable "write" mechanisms for all forms of removable media on SIPRNet ISs.
False; disable write mechanisms
List five examples of Portable Electronic Devices (PEDs).
laptops, text pagers, cell phones, smartphones, tablets, satellite phones, hand-held radios/land mobile radios, and video cameras
Prohibit connecting of privately-owned devices (cellphones, smart watches, tablets, etc.) to the AF-GIG and introduction of privately owned devices into areas (e.g. rooms, offices) where ____________ information is processed and discussed unless approved by the AO.
classified
The AF allows Guest ISs (formerly known as Non-AF ISs) seeking connection to the AFGIG, but must ensure the AF ____________ requirement is followed.
connection approval
VPN protects the information system link using____________, ____________, and ______________ giving the impression of a dedicated line.
tunneling, security controls, and endpoint address translation
All AF locations with an AF Service Delivery Point shall bulk encrypt all af.mil to af.mil traffic before it traverses the ____________.
NIPRNet
T/F The only DoD authorized access to the Internet is via the NIPRNet.
true
DISA compiled guidance for securing an IA or IA-Enabled Device (operating system, network, application software, etc.). The ____________ are a compilation of DoD policies, security regulations and best practices.
STIGS
A/An ____________ is an independent review and examination of records and activities to assess the adequacy of system controls and ensure compliance with established policies and operational procedures.
Audit
Define Audit Trail.
A chronological record reconstructing and examining the sequence of activities surrounding or leading to a specific operation, procedure, or event in a security relevant transaction from inception to final result
The audit trail must NOT contain ____________ incorrectly entered passwords, or character strings, since this could expose the password of a legitimate user who mistakenly types the user's name or password.
unencrypted (clear text) passwords
Review audit logs and audit trails at a minimum ____________, more frequently if required, and take appropriate action.
weekly
If the DoD information system contains Sources and Methods Intelligence (SAMI), then audit records are retained for ____________ years. Otherwise, audit records are retained for at least ____________ year.
5; 1
What are the three types remote access?
Administrative Access, End-User Access, Limited (General) Access
____________ requires medium security controls on the remote system and users must use government-owned or controlled devices.
End-User Access
Remote users will be connecting to a DoD core network to perform any system administration duties to include troubleshooting, configuration changes, and reviewing any system or configuration data, regardless of system type possess ____________ access.
Administrative Access
Remote users who are viewing content or sending e-mail but are NOT altering or entering official Government data (e.g., accessing a DoD web site) are considered to have ____________ access.
Limited (General) Access
T/F Delete user accounts when users are unable to remotely access their accounts due to an extended absence or when a user is suspended from work.
False; Disable user accounts (DO NOT Delete)
The process of identifying risks to agency operations (including mission, functions, image, or reputation), agency assets, or individuals by determining the probability of occurrence, the resulting impact, and additional security controls that would mitigate this impact is identified as ____________.
Risk-Analysis
____________ is a thorough assessment done to determine what parts of the system in question are vulnerable to attack and to prioritize these vulnerabilities in terms of severity and likelihood.
Risk Analysis
The four components to the risk management framework are: Frame, ________________, _________________. and _________________.
Assess, Respond to, and Monitor risk
Protect information systems from ____________ and ____________ threats by controlling physical access to the facilities and data by implementing procedures identified in Joint, DoD, AF Publications, and organizationally created procedures.
insider and outsider
Ensure only authorized users can gain access to workstations, applications, and networks. Grant access to information systems based on the need-to-know, classification level of the information, _____________, ______________________________, special access (e.g., foreign national access), Information Technology category designated requirements (i.e., local background investigation, national agency check, etc.), and ______________________.
security clearance, for official government business; qualifications.
Access to external, untrusted networks is only permitted from a ___________ in accordance with CJCSM 6510.01, Information Assurance (IA) and Computer Network Defense (CND).
demilitarized zone
The DoD's goal in regulating of Ports Protocols and Services (PPS) focuses on preventing the use of unregulated PPS. The methods to achieve this goal include implementation of Positive Technical Controls at the network level through _______________________, _______________________ for network boundary devices and at the System/Application level through ____________________ by _____________ any Unnecessary PPS.
"Deny All, Permit by Exception (DAPE)"; "Least Function"; disabling
What is the point at which an enclave's internal network service layer connects to an external network's service layer.
Enclave Boundary
What is the policy document that provides technical guidance for usage of well-known PPS on the AF Enterprise.
AF Ports, Protocols, and Services (PPS) Matrix
What is the term for a legal requirement serving as a notice to users of communications systems that monitoring is conducted and use of the system or device constitutes consent to monitoring?
Notice and Consent
A collection of computing environments connected by one or more internal networks under the control of a single authority and security policy, including personnel and physical security.
Enclave
A perimeter network segment enforcing the internal networks information assurance policy for external information exchange.
Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)
The logical connection points for the transmission of information packets.
Ports
The rules governing connection, communication, and data transfer between two computing end points.
Protocols
The term "Asset" is defined as any device connected to the AF-GIG. Name four items included in the Information System's assets.
Workstations Servers Infrastructure components (e.g. router, switch) Networked peripherals (e.g. network printers)
Various notification and tracking processes are required to direct action and report status throughout the AF Network Operations (AFNETOPS) hierarchy. Among them, the most important to AF personnel, are the ____________ and ____________.
TCNOs and C4 NOTAMs
A/An ____________ is a downward-directed security or vulnerability-related order issued by the AF.
TCNO
Name the three priority categories of Time Compliance Network Orders (TCNOs) and give a brief description of each.
Critical - Widespread and imminent/ongoing threat to the AF-GIG and supported operations and/or provides details on a network/system outage negatively impacting ongoing combat operations. Serious - Widespread threat to the AF-GIG and supported operations is expected and/or provides details on a network/system outage negatively impacting ongoing combat support operations. Moderate - Threat to the AF-GIG is possible but may be mitigated by such factors as difficulty of exploitation, limited deployment of vulnerable operating system, etc.
T/F Each I-NOSC will complete a Scan Coordination Memo prior to initiating scans across the AF-GIG with their respective sites. There will be one memo per vulnerability scan.
False; One memo per site, not per scan
If the TCNO priority is ____________ then the compliance/POA&M mitigation date will be no more than 60 days.
Moderate
Category ____ vulnerabilities are the most severe and require the organization's immediate attention. Corrective action is required within ______ business days.
I; 15
The I-NOSC or authorized alternate organization (i.e., NOS Detachments, NCCs, etc.) will conduct scheduled ____________ vulnerability scans of all assets/devices connected to the AFGIG on both NIPRNET and SIPRNET.
monthly
____________ are closely related to TCNOs with the primary difference being they are informative in nature and are NOT used to direct actions.
C4 NOTAMs
____________ is a security principle recommending the setup of multiple, complementary lines of defense against malicious attacks or other threats to security.
Defense in Depth
To effectively resist attacks against its information and information systems, an organization needs to characterize its ____________ their potential ____________, and their classes of attack.
its adversaries, their potential motivations
Name the three elements (Steps) to the Defense-in-Depth Strategy.
People, Technology, and Operations
The Barrier Reef concept is the AF's spin on the Defense-in-Depth using a process known as _____________.
layering
What security discipline ensures the employment of countermeasures to protect and secure US government information processed by AF Information Systems by protecting the confidentiality, integrity, availability, authentication, and non-repudiation of ISs?
COMPUSEC
Measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons information derived from information systems of the U.S. is referred to as ____________.
COMSEC
Denying interception and exploitation of classified, and in some instances unclassified, information by containing compromising emanations within an inspectable space is known as _____________.
TEMPEST
____________ ____________ ensures only authorized users can gain access to workstations, applications, and networks.
access control
Routine NetOps, normal readiness of information systems, and networks that can be sustained indefinitely. Information networks are fully operational in a known baseline condition withstandard information assurance polices in place and enforced.
INFOCON 5
Increases NetOps readiness, in preparation for operations or exercises, with limited impact to the end-user. Additionally, user profiles and accounts are reviewed and checks conducted for dormant accounts.
INFOCON 4
Increases NetOps readiness by increasing the frequency of validation of the informationnetwork and its corresponding configuration. Impact to end-users is minor.
INFOCON 3
The impact on system administrators will increase in comparison to previous INFOCONs and will require an increase in pre-planning, personnel training, and the exercising and pre-positioning of system rebuilding utilities.
INFOCON 2
The highest readiness condition. The most effective method for ensuring the system has not been compromised in this manner is to reload operating system software on key infrastructure servers from an accurate baseline.
INFOCON 1
Who administers AF implementation of the DoD INFOCON program and authorizes changes to the AF INFOCON level on behalf of the CSAF?
Chief of Staff of the Air Force (CSAF)
Who provides immediate voice notification of an INFOCON change?
Air Force Service Watch Cell (HQ USAF/A3OOA)
At a minimum, INFOCON reports will be unclassified and handled as ____________.
"For Official Use Only"
What message directs all MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs, to implement a new AF INFOCON level.
INFOCON Change Alerting Message (ICAM)
Define Remanence.
The residual information remaining on data media. Simply stated, "erased" media contains some physical characteristics of the system that may still allow reconstruction of physical or electronic data.
T/F During the life cycle of an IS, media can be reused, released, or destroyed. All classified IS storage media will be reused in unclassified environments.
False; destroyed in unclassified
Clearing
The process of removing information from an Information System, its storage devices, other peripheral devices with storage capacity, or from media in such a way the data may not be reconstructed using common system capabilities (i.e., through the keyboard); however, the data may be reconstructed using laboratory methods.
Overwriting
Defined as the process of recording new data on top of already stored data thus destroying the old data. Basically, the piece of overwriting software must be able to write to every 1 & 0 position on the hard drive.
Degaussing
The process of erasing magnetic media by eliminating any remnant magnetic fields.
Sanitization
A process to render access to target data on the media infeasible for a given level of effort. This term is dependent upon classification of data contained within the device.
Destruction
The act of physically damaging the media to make it unusable in a computer so no known exploitation method can retrieve data from it. Optical mass storage media, including compact disks (e.g. CD, CD-RW, CD-R, and CD-ROM), optical disks (DVD), and magneto-optic (MO) disksmust be destroyed by pulverizing, crosscut shredding or burning.
Ensure the classification markings for the ____________ classification processed remains on the media.
highest
Declassifying media requires the approval of the ____________ and ____________.
Information System Owner (ISO) and information owner
Who may downgrade or declassify classified information stored on media?
Original Classification Authority (OCA)
Use only ____________ evaluated degaussers to degauss all magnetic media containing sensitive and classified information.
NSA
The AF Inspection System (AFIS) is focused on ____________ and reporting on a unit's ____________, ____________, ____________ state of discipline and effectiveness to execute assigned missions.
assessing and reporting on a unit's readiness, economy, efficiency
The Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) gives an independent assessment of a unit's compliance with established directives and ability to execute its assigned mission, ____________ ____________, ____________ ____________, and aspects of unit culture and command climate.
Leadership effectiveness, Management performance
The Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) provides an independent assessment of a unit's ability to ____________, ____________, ____________, ____________ deficiencies, prevent fraud and abuse, and minimize waste.
Find, Report, Analyze, Fix
Responsible for unit self-assessment, not IGs.
Commanders
The cornerstone of the AF Inspection System (AFIS). Gives the Wing Commander, subordinate commanders and Wing Airmen the right information at the right time to assess risk, identify areas of improvement, determine root cause and precisely focus limited resources; all aligned with the commander's priorities and on the commander's timeline.
Commander's Inspection Program (CCIP)
Overall management and administration of CCIP. Oversees, plans, and executes Wing inspection program.
Wing Inspector General (IG)
Establish, execute and sustain a Wing CCIP.
Wing Commander
Consists of SMEs who augment Wing IG to conduct CCIP inspections under the authority of the Wing Commander.
Wing Inspection Team (WIT)
Who conducts annual COMPUSEC self-assessments using the COMPUSEC Self-Assessment Checklist (SAC) located in the Inspector General's Management Internal Control Toolset (MICT).
WCO
____________ is focused on maintaining the capability to perform the mission and the essential functions which comprise the mission.
Continuity
Continuity planning should consider all ____________, but emphasize events or other disruptions which will most likely degrade operations.
hazards
Commanders should apply ____________ ____________ principles to guide decisions about when, where, and how to invest in resources that eliminate, control or mitigate mission risk.
risk management
Continuity of Operations Plans will not be marked lower than ____________, while other COOPs will not be marked lower than ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________.
secret; For Official Use Only (FOUO)
Organizations are required to validate and update their COOP every two ____________.
years
Provides procedures and guidance to sustain an organization's MEFs at an alternate site for up to 30 days; mandated by federal directives.
Continuity of Operations Plan (COOP)
Provides procedures for mitigating and correcting a cyber-attack, such as a virus, worm, or Trojan horse.
Cyber Incident Response Plan
Provides coordinated procedures for minimizing loss of life or injury and protecting property damage in response to a physical threat.
Occupant Emergency Plan (OEP)
Provides procedures and capabilities for recovering an information system.
Information System Contingency Plan (ISCP)
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