Afi 64 102

Which Air Force instruction (AFI) provides additional information on requirements approval documents (RAD)? a. AFI 63-101. b. AFI 63-104. c. AFI 63-138. d. AFI 64-101.

Which Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation (DFARS) part governs commercial item determination (CID)? a. DFARS Part 212. b. DFARS Part 213. c. DFARS Part 233. d. DFARS Part 242.

Above what price threshold should one conduct a commercial item determination (CID)? a. $250,000. b. $500,000. c. $1 million. d. $6.5 million

For small business set asides, what percentage of the cost to manufacture a particular product is the prime contractor required to cover? a. 30 percent. b. 50 percent. c. 75 percent. d. 100 percent.

When the total cost of the contract is below $10 million, when do you create an acquisition plan? a. During routine buys. b. When there are no incentives to be included. c. When the acquisition was well researched and there is minimal risk to award and completion. d. Where there is a history of protests or performance problems.

Who is responsible for managing the quality assurance surveillance plan (QASP) quality controls? a. Customer. b. Contractor. c. Contracting office. d. Contracting officer representative.

What part of the quality assurance surveillance plan (QASP) lists performance objectives and standards that must be performed by the contractor? a. Surveillance matrix. b. Sampling guide. c. Decision tables. d. Checklists.

When developing the request for proposal (RFP), the Department of Defense (DOD) source selection procedures are required for a. orders under multiple award contracts. b. acquisitions using Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 13. c. acquisitions using FAR Part 15. d. architect and engineer services solicited and awarded using FAR Part 36.

The lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection method a. permits the use of tradeoffs between price and nonprice factors. b. may include nonprice factors such as technical and past performance. c. allows the government to accept other than the lowest priced proposal. d. requires the relative importance of all evaluation factors to be identified in the solicitation.

Which section of a request for proposal (RFP) provides offerors with instructions for proposal preparation? a. Section C. b. Section K. c. Section L. d. Section M

What action must be taken if a proposal exceeds established page limitations stated in the solicitation? a. Determine the contractor non-responsive. b. Eliminate the offeror from the competitive range. c. Remove pages in excess of the maximum allowed from the back of the proposal. d. Accept the proposal "as is" only if determined to be one of the most highly rated proposals.

Solicitation evaluation factors are used to distinguish one proposal from another by a. using discriminators. b. using non-commercial specifications. c. including as many evaluation factors as possible. d. tailoring the evaluation criteria contained in Section K

Lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selections are evaluated according to a. price only. b. the acceptability of a product or service only. c. the acceptability of non-price evaluation factors or subfactors. d. the rankings of non-price factor/subfactors and the acceptability of a product or service.

A proposal that meets requirements and indicates an exceptional approach and understanding of the requirements is given which rating? a. Good. b. Marginal. c. Outstanding. d. Acceptable.

One common aspect of past performance relevancy is a. the number of contracts performed. b. financial condition. c. small business type. d. dollar value.

When considering how many D type contracts to award from one request for proposal (RFP), the contracting officer should consider the a. total cost of the contract. b. small business type of the contractors. c. expected duration and frequency of the task or delivery orders. d. ability to alleviate competition among the awardees throughout the contract's period of performance.

Which method is a preferred technique in support of price analysis? a. Comparison of proposed price received in response to the solicitation. b. Analysis of data other than certified cost or pricing data provided by the offeror. c. Comparison with competitive published price lists. d. Use of weighted guidelines.

Which factor affects comparability during price analysis? a. Type of funding being used. b. Differences in quantities or size. c. Use of federal supply schedules. d. Differences in contractor business size.

Technical analysis of offeror proposals should a. analyze each offeror's profit margin. b. only be conducted by the contract officer. c. review each offeror's experience on similar projects. d. examine the types and quantities of materials proposed

Communications between the government and contractors are held after receipt of proposals to a. negotiate prices with only those offerors who are in the competitive range. b. determine whether or not a proposal should be placed in the competitive range. c. identify proposal deficiencies and allow offerors to revise its proposal accordingly. d. discuss aspects of an offeror's proposal that could, in the opinion of the CO, be altered to materially enhance the proposal's potential for award.

The overall objective of negotiations is to a. obtain the lowest price possible. b. never settle on a price that is outside of the government's minimum and maximum objective. c. negotiate a contract type with a price providing the greatest incentive for efficient and economical performance. d. negotiate a contract below what the government believes is reasonable for a particular contract requirement while still allowing the contractor to make a profit

In noncompetitive negotiations, which price position supports the price believed to be most reasonable based on the government's analysis? a. Minimum. b. Objective. c. Median. d. Maximum.

What profit analysis method assigns values to various profit factors, resulting in a calculated profit objective? a. Price analysis. b. Weighted guidelines. c. Profit application guidelines. d. Contractor cost/risk analysis.

When conducting negotiations, the inability to compromise may be avoided by a. using concessions to split any differences. b. threatening to cancel and resolicit the requirement. c. using other non-price factors to take the focus off price alone. d. establishing an opening position that allows room to compromise.

It may become necessary to walk away from negotiations when a. a reasonable person would consider it to be a bad deal. b. the government will exceed its maximum price position. c. the negotiations begin to exceed a reasonable amount of time. d. the parties cannot agree on price alone, although it is known that a better deal does not exist.

When a deficiency is found in an offeror's proposal, the government must a. not further consider the offeror for award. b. provide suggestions on how to correct the deficiency. c. identify it and provide the offeror an opportunity to improve the proposal. d. discuss every aspect of the proposal that received less than the maximum possible rating

What may the contracting officer request during discussions to clarify the offeror's position for further discussion? a. Proposal revision. b. Counteroffer. c. Revised quote. d. Determination and finding

When evaluating proposal revisions in a lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection a. compare proposals against each other. b. the government may not request final proposal revisions from any offerors. c. the evaluation criteria established in the request for proposal (RFP) must be used. d. the government may only make tradeoffs between cost/price and non-cost/price factors.

A comparative analysis must be completed for a. all offerors. b. all offerors in the competitive range. c. only the offerors outside of the competitive range. d. only the offerors that source selection authority (SSA) has identified.

The source selection decision document (SSDD) represents the source selection authority's a. independent judgment. b. dependent judgment. c. comparative assessment. d. selection of best value proposal

The source selection decision document (SSDD) should a. be written as a stand-alone document. b. be signed and posted on the government point of entry (GPE). c. strictly focus on lowest price and why other offerors were excluded. d. only identify the factors and subfactors that help sell the authorities' decision

When preparing an award notice letter, what should be provided? a. Award amount. b. Ranking of other proposals. c. Date of expected notice to proceed. d. Amount of offerors and the awarded offeror.

Within how many days after receipt of a written request should a post-award debriefing be provided to an unsuccessful offeror? a. 3. b. 5. c. 7. d. 10.

Post-award debriefings must include a. the overall evaluated cost or price and technical ratings of all offerors. b. the government's evaluation of the signification weaknesses in the offeror's proposal. c. names of individuals providing reference information about the offeror's past performance. d. a point by point comparison of the debriefed offeror's proposal with those of other offerors

Upon completion of a debriefing, offerors must be notified that a. no further questions are permissible. b. debriefings may be reopened at the discretion of the contract officer (CO). c. only the most highly rated offers will be retained for use in future acquisitions. d. requests for additional information must be submitted in writing with three days after conclusion of the debriefing.

If an untimely request for a debriefing was received, a contract officer a. may decline to provide the debriefing. b. must limit the debriefing to who received the award and the award amount. c. must provide a complete debriefing to all offerors who request one regardless of timeliness. d. is required to provide a debriefing in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act.

What may contractors receive when site conditions differ from what was indicated in the specifications and drawings? a. Time. b. Money. c. Time, money or both. d. Cancelling of the contract.

Contractor progress schedules are required a. for all construction contracts. b. for only architect and engineering contracts. c. when contracts exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and the performance period is greater than 30 days. d. when contracts exceed the SAT and the performance period is greater than 60 days

Why is the site visit conducted so quickly after issuing the solicitation? a. So that interested contractors have time to submit requests for information for clarifications. b. So that interested contractors have time to submit a protest. c. Because the site visit is only conducted when contractors request one. d. Because the site visit allows civil engineering to verify the requirements.

What should the contracting officer or contract specialist do when there are discrepancies found during the post-award site visit? a. Forward them to contracting officer representative or contractor so they can be addressed. b. Tell the contractor that payment is being withheld. c. Document the file and address later. d. Tell the customer.

What type of Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) report is used at the end of the first 12-month option period on a 5-year contract? a. Final. b. Interim. c. Addendum. d. Annual interim

The Truthful Cost or Pricing Data statue requires contractors to submit cost or pricing data when the procurement is expected to be valued over a. the simplified acquisition threshold. b. $750,000. c. $2 million. d. the micro purchase threshold.

Certification of cost or pricing data states that a. to the best of the contractor's knowledge, the cost or pricing data is accurate and complete at the date of the agreement. b. to the best of the contractor's knowledge, the cost or pricing data is verified by the suppliers. c. the contractor agrees to the cost or price of the contract. d. the contractor's estimates of cost or pricing data is correct

What type of change improperly exceeds the scope of a procurement and is one which could not have been reasonably anticipated by offerors? a. Cardinal change. b. Unilateral change. c. Restrictive change. d. Constructive change

A contractor is required to certify any claim a. exceeding the micro-purchase threshold. b. exceeding $100,000. c. exceeding $1,000,000. d. when the contract is subject to the Truthful Cost or Pricing Data statue.

What Air Force instruction (AFI) governs the use of the government purchase card (GPC)? a. AFI 64-105. b. AFI 64-102. c. AFI 64-117. d. AFI 36-2903

The agency/organization program coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for a. for oversight of all cardholders under his or her control. b. initiating government purchase card (GPC) accounts, issuing delegation letters, and providing mandatory training. c. staying aware of GPC rules, following those rules, and making purchases within their limits. d. providing training, distributing cards, replacing lost or stolen cards, and providing customer service

Which is not one of the phases of strategic sourcing? a. Standup phase. b. Execution phase. c. Source selection strategy phase. d. Management performance phase

What strategic sourcing tool assesses data such as money spent, type of contracts used, size of purchase, item(s) purchased, and so forth? a. Cost analysis. b. Price analysis. c. Spend analysis. d. Portfolio management.

Two-step sealed bidding is especially useful in a. contracts that have a short lead time and need to be award quickly. b. acquisitions requiring complex technical proposals. c. cost-plus-fixed fee contracts. d. construction contracts.

One condition why two-step sealed bidding may be used in preference to negotiations is when a. definite criteria exist for evaluating technical proposals. b. only one technically qualified source is expected to be available. c. there is not sufficient time available for use of the two-step sealed bidding method. d. a cost-reimbursement contract will be used

The purpose of contract financing is to a. assist the contractor in paying costs incurred during the performance of the contract. b. assist the contractor in getting their business started. c. help the contractor with lease or rental payments. d. help the contractor with the cost-type contract.

Which is a type of noncommercial contract financing payment? a. Lien. b. Letter of credit. c. Loan guarantees. d. Progress payments based on insurance.

Commercial advance and interim payments may be made when the a. form of contract financing is in the best interest of the contractor. b. contract item being financed is a commercial supply or service. c. contract being awarded is under sole-source procedures. d. contract price is below the SAT.

What type of financing has the least amount of risk to the government? a. Advance. b. Private. c. Partial. d. Cost.

Which task falls under contract support integration? a. Planning, validating and prioritizing requirements. b. Contracting support planning and coordinating common contracting actions. c. Translating requirements into contract terms, and developing, soliciting, executing, and closing out contracts. d. Planning contractor management, preparing for contractor deployment, deploying or redeploying contractors.

Which is Phase III of the operational phase? a. Deter. b. Stabilize. c. Dominate. d. Reinforce.

What is the purpose of the Joint Requirements Review Board (JRRB)? a. Review, validate, approve, and prioritize contract support requirements. b. Ensure contract support actions support the joint force commanders command guidance. c. Maximize contracting capabilities while minimizing the competition for limited vendor capabilities. d. Ensure that contracting and other related logistics efforts are properly coordinated across the entire area of responsibility

International agreements between two or more governments that address various privileges, immunities, and responsibilities and enumerate the rights and responsibilities of individual members of a deployed force are known as a. status of forces agreements (SOFA). b. law of armed conflict (LOAC). c. wartime agreements. d. host nation laws

Contractors authorized to accompany the force (CAAF) a. is a term given to describe local national contractors. b. is a term used to describe all Department of Defense civilian contractors no matter the location. c. is a term given to describe local national contractors and third country nationals. d. are contractor employees who are authorized to accompany the force in applicable foreign contingency operations

Contractors authorized to accompany the force (CAAF) are a. subject to all local laws, regardless of status. b. exempt from all host nation laws during a contingency. c. exempt from all laws in a contingency environment unless stated in the contract. d. subject to local laws unless specifically exempted by Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA) security agreements.

What is a major element of the air expeditionary force (AEF) structure? a. Deployment force. b. Noninstitutional force. c. Expeditionary force. d. Readily available force.

What is the purpose of the reclama process? a. To request relief from the deployment tasking by asking the authority to reconsider its decision. b. To guarantee that the unit will be relieved from the deployment tasking. c. To ensure a unit will not be tasked with a deployment. d. To ensure the commander can control if his or her Airmen can deploy.

When should the contracting officer conduct the mission brief? a. As soon as possible. b. Once you have your office established. c. Once the rest of your staff arrive on location. d. Once the deployed commander seeks you out and asks for one

Who is the second person to receive contract authority? a. Senior contracting official (SCO). b. Secretary of Defense (SecDef). c. President. d. Head of contracting authority (HCA)

Which form explicitly documents a contracting officer's warrant? a. Standard Form (SF) 1400. b. SF 1401. c. SF 1402. d. SF 1403.

Which of the following is a main contracting-related option? a. Defense Contract Management Agency. b. Functional Contracting Command. c. Defense Logistics Agency. d. Lead service component responsible for theater support contracting.

Which contracting-related organizational structure is best suited for long-term missions and missions beyond the capability of a single service? a. Service component support to own forces. b. Geographic contracting command (GCC). c. Joint theater support contracting command (JTSCC). d. Lead service component responsible for theater support contracting

Which type of funds will a contingency contracting officer (CCO) mainly use? a. Procurement. b. Military construction (MILCON). c. Operations and maintenance (O&M). d. Morale, welfare, and recreation (MWR)/non-appropriated funds (NAF).

The primary goal of Defense Base Act insurance is to cover a. workers on military bases outside the United States. b. workers on military bases outside and inside the United States. c. military personnel on military bases outside the United States. d. military personnel on coalition bases outside the United States.

Which regulation(s) cover expedited contracting procedures? a. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 64-105. b. AFI 64-102. c. Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 18. d. FAR Part 18 and Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) Part 218.

Who normally fulfills the field ordering officer (FOO) role? a. Army soldiers. b. Resource advisors (RA). c. Contracting officers (CO). d. Contracting officer representatives (COR).

Who appoints field ordering officers (FOO)? a. Contractor chief executives. b. Squadron commanders. c. Contingency contracting officers (CCO). d. Contracting officer representatives (COR).

What must field ordering officers (FOO) maintain when keeping track of their purchases? a. Copy of the purchase request document. b. Copy of purchase receipt. c. Appointment letter. d. Standard Forms 44.

Which is a field ordering officer (FOO) violation? a. Authorized commitments. b. Purchases at authorized limits. c. Purchases outside the purpose of the appropriated funds. d. Ensuring competition in contracting act requirements (CICA) are met.

Who is responsible for determining contractors authorized to augment the force (CAAF)/non-CAAF status? a. Contracting officer (CO). b. Contract specialist. c. Host-nation liaison. d. Base commander.

In-theater management of contractor personnel is maintained in a. security forces. b. System for Award Management (SAM). c. Defense Biometric Identification System (DBIDS). d. Synchronized predeployment operational tracker (SPOT)

Which is a tool that a contingency contracting officer (CCO) can use to research an area of responsibility (AOR)? a. Comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP). b. Lessons learned plan. c. Physically flying to the location. d. The respective combatant command (CCMD) operational contract support integration cell (OCSIC).

What is a category of defense support of civil authorities (DSCA)? a. Undesignated law enforcement support. b. International emergencies. c. Domestic emergencies. d. Space activities

Humanitarian assistance is the Department of Defense (DOD) term a. for relief and development activities that take place in the context of an overseas military exercise, training event, or operation. b. for domestic emergencies that affect the public welfare, endanger life and property, or disrupt the usual process of government. c. that allows the DOD to provide aid whenever a military accident happens on a DOD installation. d. that authorizes the DOD to help state and local governments alleviate the suffering and damage caused by disasters.

Which act authorizes the federal government to help state and local governments alleviate the suffering and damage caused by disasters? a. Disaster Relief Act of 1974. b. Department of Defense Disaster Response Act. c. Overseas Humanitarian, Disaster and Civic Aid Act (OHDACA). d. Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act

If unable to exercise contingency contracting officer (CCO) skills in a base exercise, who prepares CCOs with unit specific exercises? a. Contracting commander. b. Unit training manager. (UTM). c. Unit deployment manager. (UDM.) d. Installation's wing inspection team (WIT).