Afi 11 402

The Director of Training and Readiness (____) manages and establishes guidance for the USAF aviation and parachutist service programs as outlined in the 11-402, and is the final approval authority for waivers.

Who provides guidance, criteria and supervision to subordinate organizations to ensure compliance with the 11-402, with MAJCOM/A3T being the waiver authority for aeronautical raiting boards, FEBs and FEB waivers?

Who provides commanders and amn full spectrum level support of aviation and parachutist service review at the WG, MAJCOM and HAF?

Who reviews an applicant's request for a USAF aeronautical raining and provides recommendations through command channels to MAJCOM/A3t?

Aircrew members will not perform inflight duties during periods of non-flying ___, permissive ____ or while on ____.

Officers enrolled in undergrad flying training enter an aviation career on the _____ listed in the undergrad flying training document or the date the member is medically certified for inflight duty, whichever is later.

officers enter aviation service on the date of ____ from the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course or equivalent raining, or the date the member is ____ certified for inflight duty, whichver is later.

For rated officers that change their rated specialties, the ____ undergrad flying training AO effective day that resulted in the first AO ratin establishes the member's aviation service date.

For a CEA, aviation service begins when ____ formal weapons system training (where in-flight duties are required upon an aircraft or in a flight simulator). The Aviation service date will not be prior to the date the member is qualified for aviation service. If disenrolled, the reentry date is the new aviation service date.

A prior CEA attending OTS and then entering undergrad flying training shall have their aviation service date adjusted to the _____ of the applicable course.

17 October 1998 is the earliest effective date for aviation service code and flying incentive pay adjustments for who?

1 October 1999 is the earliest effective date for aviation service code and flying incentive pay adjustments for who?

When may the basic aircrew member badge be awarded?

The ____ parachutist badge is worn above all other parachutist badges.

Members may wear a ____ on the parachutist badge for each combat jump accomplished.

Commanders on G-series orders at any review level may recommend ____ wear of an enlisted aircrew or parachutist badge when member is DQ from aviation service as a result of failure to maintain professional standards.

A member way lose the right to wear the parachutist badge by refusing to jump or requesting removal from jump statust with less than ____ months of jump duty experience .

Who may approve award of advanced pilot, RPA pilot, CSO, observer, ABM or FS aviation badges for members of freign military services who satisfy the badge criteria?

For award of the basic airman aircrew badge:

For award of the senior officer or airman aircrew badge:

For award of the master officer or Chief airman aircrew member badge:

For award of the flight nurse badge:

For award of the senior flight nurse badge:

For award of the Chief flight nurse badge:

Commanders will provide non-career enlisted aviator enlisted aircrew members at least ____ calendar days notification (in writing) before involuntarily terminating aviation service.

Non-permanent DQ actions for non-rated officers, non-areer enlisted aviator enlisted aircrew members and parachutists consists of:

Who may requalify non-rated officer, non-career enlisted aviator enlisted aircrew and parachutists previous DQ'd for non-permanent reasons?