Afh 1

The importance of the air force mission and inherent responsibility to the nation require that AF members

"Integrity first, service before self, and excellence in all we do" are the AF

Air Force personnel can find guidance on standars of conduct in

What may result if civilian personnel violate the punitive provisions of DoDD 5500.07, Standards of Conduct, DoD 5500.07R, the Joint Ethics Regulation, and AFI 1-1, Air Force Standards?

What may result if military personnel violate th punitive procisions of DoDD 5500.07, Standards of Conduct, DoD 5500.07R, The Joint Ethics Regulation and AFI 1-1, Air Force Standards?

______ are standards of conduct based on values.

Ethical values are core beliefs, such as duty, honor, and integrity that

Which aspect of honesty prevents confusion, misinterpretation, and inaccurate conclusions?

What word describes being faithful to your convictions and acting with honor?

Which ethical value is synonymous with fidelity, faithfulness, allegiance, and decotion that requires balancing various interests, values, and institutions?

The important aspects of fairness include

What ethical value is the counterbalance to the temptation to pursue the mission at any cost?

What ethical value includes treating people with dignity, honoring privacy, and allowing self-determination?

The lack of the ethical value ______ in government leads to a breakdown of loyalty and honesty, and thus to chaos in the international community.

To promote trust and cooperation, only make commitments that are within your authority. Which ethical value does this describe?

Justice must be pursued and injustice challenged through accepted means according to what ethical value?

Setting an example of superior diligence and commitment and striving to be better than mediocre are aspects of what ethical value?

When do relationships between AF members become a matter of official concern?

Which statement about professional and unprofessional relationships is false?

Unprofessional relationships may develop between

Fraternization is an _____ form of unprofessional relationship.

According to the Manual for Courts-Martial, fraternization can only occur between

Fraternization is specifically prohibited in the Manual for Courts-Martial and is punishable under what article of the UCMJ?

What factors can change an otherwise permissible relationship into an unprofessional relationship?

What might not be considered an unprofessional relationship?

Regarding unprofessional relationships,

Which describes a potentially unprofessional relationship?

If a military member violates a lawful order to cease an unprofessional relationship or conduct, he or she is

_____ may be prosecuted as a criminal offense if committed incidental to an unprofessional relationship.

Which statement about responsibilities for a professional relationship is false?

With regard to professional relationships, who is expected to exhibit the highest standards of professional conduct and to lead by example?

Who should take corrective action when a relationship is prohibited by AFI 26-2909?

When responding to an unprofessional relationship,

A commander or supervisor believes a relationship is unprofessional. What may be an appropriate first step to take?

An order to terminate an dunprofessional relationship can and should be given when it is apparent that lesser ____ action will not be effective.

In unprofessional relationships, each instance shows that actual ____ may constitute a violation of the UCMJ or the punitice provisions of the Joint Ethics Regulation.

The financial responsibilities of military members do not include

Financial complaints are forwarded to your commander, who attempts to respond within

What ethical value most promotes careful, well-thought-out decisions, and limits thoughtless action?

The Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) helps individuals and families with free education, information, and

Administrative counseling, admonition, and _____ improve, correct, and instruct subordinates who depart from standards while on or off duty, and whose actions degrade the individual and unit's mission.

Administrative counseling, admonitions, and reprimands

Which of the following is the lowest level of administrative action?

What is used to document an infraction serious enough to warrant a letter of admonishment?

Which administrative action indicates the strongest degree of official censure?

When letters of counseling, admonishment, and reprimand are written, what must they state?

What provides commanders with an official and single means of filing derogatory data on an AF member's personal conduct and duty performance?

Which document must the commander place in the UIF?

Which document is optional for the commander to place in the UIF for up to one year?

Which of these officials lacks the authority to establish, remove or destroy UIF files?

Which of these individuals is not authorized access to someone's UIF in the course of their AF duties?

Which document contains guidance on disposition dates for the UIF?

What is a rehabilitative tool that establishes an observation period for individuals with substandard duty performance or those who fail to meet or maintain AF standards of conduct, bearing and integrity, on or off duty?

Commanders use the control roster to establish a ___ month observation period.

Which statement regarding the control roster is incorrect?

What document does the commander use to place someone on a control roster?

The control roster

____ or equivalent-level commanders may demote MSgts and below.

Who may demote SMSgts and CMSgts?

An Airman is not administratively demoted for failure to

___ of the student status of a member attending TDY AF school may be cause for administrative demotion, if the Airman was promoted in anticipation of completing additional training.

During an administrative demotion, the immediate commander's duties do not include informing the member

A MSgt believes he was unfairly demoted for not meeting physical conditioning standards. Who is the appellate authority?

Unless the MAJCOM, Field Operating Agency, or Direct Reporting Unit Commander delegates demotion authority, who is the appellate authority for SMSgts and CMSgts?

Suitability to serve in the Air Force is based on conduct and the ability to meet standards of ____ and discipline.

Adminstrative discharges can be characterized as honorable, general, or

Airman

Pregnancy or conscientious objection are reasons for

What type of separation are Airman subject to when discharged for unsatisfactory performance?

When charged with offenses punishable by punitive discharge, what may Airmen request in lieu of court-martial?

What is the most desirable means of maintaining standards?

The purposes of military law include all of the following except

What is the primary source of US military law?

The US Constitution designates the ___ as the Commander in Chief (CINC) of the armed forces.

Who does the US Constitution grant the power to raise an Army and Navy, control the military budget and make rules to govern the Army and Navy?

In addition to the US Constitution, the pillars of the military justice system include the UCMJ, Manual for Courts Martial, and

In what year did the UCMJ become effective?

The Manual for Courts-Martial is revised annually. It does not include the

The Manual for Courts-Martial provides military law guidance to

The right against self-incrimination (no person shall be compelled in any case to be a witness against himself or herself) is protected ____ Amendment to the Constitution, is reflected in UCMJ Article 31 and Military Rule of Evidence (MRE) 304.

Regarding self-incrimination, it is inaccurate to state that

In the AF, a military attorney is provided free of charge

The Area Defense Counsel (ADC)

What is the military equivalent of civilian "arrest"?

An individual may be apprehended upon____, when there is reason to believe he or she has committed or is committing an offense.

A non-law enforcement NCO observes an officer who is about to commit a serious offense. What should the NCO do?

Conditions on liberty, arrest, restrictions in lieu of arrest and confinement are four types of

A commander orders an NCO not to visit the scene of an alleged offense. This is an example of

______ is a less severe restraint on liberty than arrest; its geographic limits are usually broader and the offender performs full military duties unless otherwise directed.

In the armed forces, arrest does not

Individuals are put in pretrial ____ only when lesser forms of pretrial restraint are inadequate.

Regarding pretrial confinement, which of the following statements is false?

An ___ is express permission (written or oral) issued by competent military authority to search a person or an area for specified property, evidence, or for a specific person and to seize such property, evidence or person. It is the military equivalent of a civilian search warrant.

Which of the following individuals cannot authorize searches?

The installation commander who has discretion to appoint, in writing, up to ____ military magistrates who may also authorize search and seizure (including apprehension) requests.

Inspections

Nonjudicial Punishment (NJP)

A commander should not offer an ___ unless he or she is prepared to proceed with court-martial charges because it cannot be imposed if the member demands a court-martial trial instead.

When imposing Nonjudicial Punishment (NJP), the commander has discretion in determining whether an offense is minor, based on the nature of the offense and

The maximum permissible punishment under Article 15, UCMJ is limited based on the grade of the imposing commander and the

Under Nonjudicial Punishment (NJP),

Under Article 15, what is the maximum length of correctional custody a captain can impose on a SSgt?

In a Nonjudicial Punishment (NJP), a MSgt can be reduced one grade by a commander in what grade?

A commander in the grade of lieutenant or captain can impose a maximum Article 15 punishment of ______ days restriction or extra duties.

A commander in the grade of major or above can impose a maximum Article 15 punishment of __ days extra duties or __ days restriction.

Who does not routinely have authority to reduce the grades of SMSgt and CMSgt by one grade?

What is the highest rank of Airman the commanders in the grades of lieutenant and captain can reduce in rank?

For Nonjudicial Punishment, the staff Judge Advocate prepares AF Form ______, Record of Nonjudicial Punishment Proceedings, then the commander signs it and provides it to the member.

Once offered Nonjudicial Punishment, a member must decide whether to accept. Which of the following statements is inaccurate?

Regarding nonjudicial punishment (NJP), after consulting with the staff judge advocate (SJA), a commander may annotate any of the following on AF Form 3070A/B/C except that

What statement about Nonjudicial Punishment (NJP) appeal process is inaccurate?

A commander has the power to suspend, remit, or ____ punishment of an article 15.

What kind of sentences are encouraged for first offenders to provide an observation period and incentive for good behavior?

____ cancels any executed or unexecuted portion of a punishment under Article 15 and restores any property, privileges, or rights affected by that portion of the punishment.

Commanders ____ an unexecuted portion of a punishment by charging it to a less severe form or reducing its quality or quantity.

What type of court-martial tries minor offenses?

What type of court-martial tries intermediate-level offenses?

Who can be tried by a Summary Court-Martial?

Instead of a military judge, a Summary Court-Martial (SCM) normally consists of _____ active duty commissioned officer.

Which service members may be tried by a Special Court-Martial (SPCM)?

A maximum punishment by a Summary Court-Martial (SCM) for ranks lower than SSgt includes

A Special Court-Martial (SPCM) sentence may include

The General Court-Martial (GCM)

A Special Court-Martial (SPCM) usually consists of a military judge and a panel of ___ or more members.

Cases cannot be referred for trial by General Court-Martial (GCM) without a thorough and impartial investigation under

The General Court-Martial (GCM) is composed of a military judge and at least five-member panel that may include, when requested, at least ___ enlisted members.

Who generally is the convening authority that selects the court-martial panel?

The court-martial verdict is called the

If the finding in a court-martial is guilty, what procedure immediately follows?

What court-martial panel vote is required for a finding of guilty?

What court-martial panel vote is required for confinement exceeding 10 years?

What court-martial sentence requires a unanimous vote by a panel of 12 members?

During post-trial procedures, who approves, disapproves, or reduces all or part of the findings and sentence of a court-martial?

During the initial review of court-martial trial records, the convening authority may

Who reviews records of trial for any general court-martial not otherwise reviewed under Article 66 of the UCMJ if there is a finding of guilty, and the accused does not waive or withdraw his or her right to appellate review under Article 61?

What is the first level of formal appellate review?

The US AF Court of Criminal Appeals (AFCCA) will review a sentence of

Name the highest appellate court in the military justice system.

The US Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces (USCAAF) is composed of ___ judges appointed by the President.

What court may review US Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces (USCAAF) decisions?

NCO responsibilities in the military justice system do not include

Who most salute during the raising and lowering of the US flag?

How long should you hold your salute during the raising and lowering of the flag?

If you're outdoors in uniform, not in formation, and you hear the national anthem or "To the Colors" during the raising and lowering of the US flag,

What should you do in a moving vehicle when you hear the national anthem or "To the Colors" start to play?

Saluting is a courteous exchange of greeting. Who salutes first?

A junior member salutes an officer carrying articles in both hands. What should the officer do?

You meet an officer outside a building and you're both in uniform. What should you do?

What do you do when you're in a group (but not in formation) and a senior officer approaches?

You are in charge of a work detail and an officer approaches. What is the proper procedure for saluting?

When in uniform at a military funeral, salute

When are salutes rendered indoors?

Which habit should be encouraged in the military world?

Who should receive the same military courtesies you show members of the Air Force?

What can happen if there is a lack of courtesy in the unit?

When you accompany or join a person senior to you, what position should you always take?

What should you do when a senior officer enters or departs a room?

How do military personnel enter automobiles and small boats?

The enlisted force structure does not provide a common approach to

Which statement about the enlisted force structure is true?

The enlisted force structure defines all of the following for the enlisted force except the

Each ___ in the enlisted force structure corresponds to higher levels of training, education, experience, leadership, and managerial responsibilities.

The three tiers of the enlisted force structure include all of the following, except the

Members of which tier of the enlisted force structure initially focus on adapting to the requirements of the military and achieving occupational proficiency while learning to be highly productive members of the Air Force?

__ are primarily adapting to the requirements of the military profession, acquiring needed knowledge of military customs, courtesies, and AF standards, and striving to gain occupational proficiency

What rank, while still learning and adapting to the military profession, is expected to understand and conform to military standards, customs, and courtesies?

A1Cs fully comply with AF standards, devote time to increasing their skills in their career fields and

Individuals in which rank can serve as reporting officials after completing ALS?

Members of which tier of the enlisted force structure are continuing their occupational growth while becoming expert technicians?

__ are highly skilled technicians with supervisory and training responsibilities. They continuously strive to further develop as technicians, supervisors, and leaders through on and off duty professional development.

Which rank is often the organization's technical expert, developing themselves as technicians, supervisors, leaders, and mentors through PME and on and off duty professional development?

Which tier of the enlisted force structure includes members who have extensive leadership experience that can be used to leverage resources and personnel against a variety of mission requirements?

Individuals in which rank are transitioning from technical experts and first-line supervisors to leaders of operational competence?

___ are key, experienced operational leaders who are skilled at merging the talents, skills, and resources of their teams with other organizations.

Which statement about CMSgt, the highest enlisted rank, is inaccurate?

The three enlisted leadership and development levels are __, operational, and strategic.

Which rank serves at the tactical level of enlisted leadership and development, accomplishing all assigned work as efficiently as possible using the personnel and resources available?

At which level of enlisted leadership and development do SNCOs transition from being expert technicians and first-line supervisors to leaders with broader leadership, supervisory, and managerial responsibilities?

The majority of the enlisted force spend their entire careers at the __ levels of enlisted leadership and development, where their natural strengths of competencies, experience, and day to day mission focus are required.

At the ___ level of enlisted leadership and development, CMSgts (and a few other SNCOs assigned to higher HQ) in key leadership positions focus on leading and managing the force to best meet current and future requirements.

The general responsibilities of junior enlisted Airmen do not include

Junior enlisted Airmen become ___ ready to accomplish the mission by building relationships and networks that promote well-being and optimal performance.

Junior enlisted Airmen become ___ ready to accomplish the mission by participating in the AF fitness program.

How do issues such as financial problems, stress, marital problems, and substance abuse affect readiness to accomplish the mission?

Being __ ready involves the development of personal skills needed in times of stress, hardship, and tragedy.

General NCO responsibilities do not include

NCOs must be alert for signs of substance abuse, depression, suicide, or post combat stress. This imperative is related to what form of readiness?

Why must NCOs frequently visit dining facilities, chapel centers, rec facilities, dorms, and enlisted clubs as part of their general responsibilities?

Which statement does not support the responsibility of NCOs to epitomize excellence, lead by example and ensure a positive organizational climate that promotes dignity and respect for all Airmen?

Within the same enlisted grade, seniority is determined by these factors in what order?

At minimum, NCOs counsel subordinates while completing the Airman Comprehensive Assessment. They review and provide a copy of the AF __ Fact Sheet to the subordinate.

As part of their general responsibilities, NCOs must seek ways to reduce ___ and improve efficiency.

What is an SNCO's primary purpose?

The general responsibilities of SNCOs do not include

In meeting their general responsibilities, SNCOs should not

Which enlisted duty title is used for junior enlisted Airmen and NCOs who are first-line supervisors?

Which statement about NCOICs is true?

Only an SNCO can hold the enlisted duty title of

Which enlisted duty title is used for an NCO or SNCO who is a program, project, or policy manager at the Numbered Air Force (NAF), MAJCOM, Direct Reporting Unit (DRU), Field Operating Agency (FOA), Joint Staff or Air Staff level and may be the enlisted leader of the branch, division or directorate?

Which unique SNCO position derives authority from the unit commander and has the primary responsibility of building and maintaining a mission ready force?

Which statement about first sergeants is false?

A group superintendent's duties include all of the following except

Enlisted academy commandants are SNCOs who may serve at each ALS and

______ manage enlisted career fields for MAJCOMs, disseminate policies and program requirements throughout the MAJCOM, and provide expertise to Air Education and Training Command (AETC) to develop new training programs or improve existing ones.

Where do enlisted Air Force Career Field Managers (AFCFM) usually serve?

Which unique SNCO position provides leadership to the enlisted force and serves as the functional manager for group superintendents and first sergeants in their organization?

What position did the AF create in 1966 although AF leadership had previously rejected it, fearing it might undermine the formal chain of command?

Who was the first CMSAF

Which CMSAF was held prisoner by the Germans during WWII and helped create the WAPS

CMSAF ____ was an armament and gunnery instructor, known for his no nonsense approach and ability to listen, and focused on resolving racial tensions, assignment concerns, and promotion problems during the Vietnam Conflict.

The CMSAF who grew up on an Iowa farm during the Great Depression and Dust Bowl years, was nicknamed the "GI's man in Washington", and focused on increasing opportunities for NCO professional development was

Which CMSAF was the first African American to serve in the highest enlisted post of any military service, broke down barriers for women in the AF, and established the service's commitment to EPME for all Airmen?

____ made MSgt in seven years and seven months of service, was a military training instructor and educated the force on the hazards of substance abuse during his time as CMSAF.

Which CMSAF had previously considered a vocation in the priesthood, was selected as one of the 12 outstanding airmen of the year in 1974 and worked to improve recruiting and retention rates?

This CMSAF served in the military police force and as an investigator, focused on cultural change within the AF and traveled extensively, believing the CMSAF must know issues firsthand. Who was he?

Which CMSAF entered the AF as a ground weather equipment operator, was the youngest 7 level in his career field, a member of the first SNCOA class, and implemented the First Sergeant of the year program AF wide?

Which CMSAF was disqualified from flight school because of high frequency hearing loss, set his sights on becoming CMSAF while serving in Vietnam, was the sole enlisted member on the President's Commission on Military Compensation, and believed giving more responsibility to Airmen would attract and retain higher quality people?

The CMSAF who played minor league baseball before enlisting in the AF, took part in the first Ability to Survive and Operate (ATSO) exercise in a chemical environment and created enlisted career paths and milestones similar to the officer career model was

After his supervisors at his first base turned his attitude around, ___ sought challenges throughout his career. As CMSAF, he successfully fought a proposed reduction in retirement pay, gave each Airman an individual dormitory room, and advised Airmen to be honest and keep their promises.

Name the CMSAF who served as the US Air Forces in Europe (USAFE) Senior Enlisted Advisor (SEA) during Operation Joint Endeavor in Bosnia, crafted the NCO Professional Development Seminar and focused heavily on fundamental discipline and on a culture change of the AF to meet expeditionary requirements.

CMSAF ___ began his career in the "bomb dumps" as a missile maintenance crew chief, restructured the PME program, implemented the procedures to create the ALS and allow MSgts to attend SNCOA, and ensured future-focused leaders were developed.

Promoted to SrA BTZ and often recognized for performance and leadership, this CMSAF refocused BMT and PME toward expeditionary combat principles, developed a new physical fitness program, and balanced the enlisted force structure. Who was he?

Trained as a medical technician and aircraft maintenance specialist, __ served as the PACAF Command Chief Master Sergeant before becoming the CMSAF in June 2006. He also helped make the first major changes to the feedback and performance report forms since 1990, encouraged Airmen to earn their CCAF degree earlier in their career, created the Enlisted Heroes Walk, and brought back the enlisted collar brass and Good Conduct Medal.

The 16th CMSAF, ____, served in civil engineer positions and as a Command Chief Master Sergeant (CCM) at multiple levels, helped build resiliency within Airmen and their families, focused on developing Airmen through education, training and experience, and improved Distance Learning opportunities.

___ is the current CMSAF

The term "Airmen" refers to members from which AF ranks?

Which Statement about Airmanship is inaccurate?

All of the following statements about the We Are All Recruiters (WEAR) are true, except that

Which statement about Recruiters Assistance Programs (RAP) is inaccurate?

Military ethics is not about

Military ethics is rooted in the three

Which statement about military ethics is inaccurate?

In 1959, Fidel Castro overthrew the dictator of ___ and instituted a socialist dictatorship.

The Central Intelligence Agency planned the 1961 invasion of Cuba at the Bay of Pigs in hopes that the Cuban people would overthrow Castro. Who were used as troops?

After the crushing defeat at the Bay of Pigs, who increased economic and military aid to Cuba and began constructing missile complexes there?

How was soviet construction of missile complexes in Cuba fist confirmed?

How did the US respond to the Cuban Missile Crisis?

During the Cuban Missile Crisis,

Installations must prepare for and quickly respond to major accidents to

Which AFMAN defines a major accident as one involving DoD material or activities, and warranting response by the installation Disaster Response Force (DRF)?

A major accident may involve

Who responds to a major accident involving DoD resources, unless otherwise directed?

After alerting others in the area and reporting a major accident, personnel should not

The threat of natural disasters and severe weather varies widely by

Which of the following is not considered a natural disaster?

When dealing with a natural disaster, all of the following are true except

What does a 3 - 5 minute wavering tone on a siren or similar warning device indicate?

What does a 3 - 5 minute steady tone on a siren or similar warning device indicate?

Which response is not necessary immediately after hearing an alarm signal for an enemy attack?

What is indicated if you hear "lockdown, lockdown, lockdown" and a location repeated three times?

What should you do in response to a shooter warning alarm signal?

After a disaster warning or attack warning, how is "all clear" signaled?

Which are the appropriate steps to take after you receive the "all clear" signal following an alarm for a natural disaster or attack?

What document does each installation develop to maintain the primary base mission, save lives, mitigate damage, and restore mission-essential resources in the event of a natural or technological disaster

Which AFMAN provides more information on response procedures and sheltering personnel in the event of a natural disaster or major incident?

When it comes to sheltering personnel in the event of a natural disaster,

Which statement about protective measures during natural disasters is incorrect?

Which statement about enemy attacks is true?

Which type of threat achieves surprise and can cause mass casualties that hinder the momentum of operations; disrupts command, control and communications, and degrades warfighting potential?

Which type of threat can cause lethal disabling, contagious or noncontagious casualties?

Which statement about nuclear threats is false?

What is the most effective Individual Protection Equipment for a conventional attack?

In which phase of attack do defense actions focus on individual and weapons systems survival?

Attack ___ defense actions focus on saving lives, detecting, and mitigating hazards, mission restoration, and sustainment.

During wartime, the installation's Command and Control (C2), in conjunction with the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) and Unit Control Centers (UCC), is responsible for implementing ___ plans, controlling and monitoring mission generation capabilities and ensuring installation ____.

What are the three phases of attack?

When do attack preparation defense actions begin?

What alerting system recalls people to their duty locations during pre-attack defense actions?

To take protective actions in response to the base warning signals, base personnel do not need to know the

What general actions should you take during alarm condition yellow?

Which alarm condition do you hear or see when attack by air or ground forces is imminent or in progress?

What does alarm condition black indicate

What do installation commanders declare to initiate passive defense actions in wartime?

___ initiate or limit individual and air base-wide movement and action. ___ let individuals know what to wear for minimum protection.

Which statement regarding a unit's recovery from an attack is inaccurate?

Who will disseminate reports of contaminated hazard areas, UXOs, and casualty and damage assessments after an attack?

Methods of contamination avoidance after an attack in CBRN environment do not include

If you do not have a Reactive Skin Decontamination Lotion (RSDL) or M295 individual decontamination kit, use ___% chlorine solution to remove chemical agents from your skin.

How many MOPP levels are there?

Use MOPP level ___ during periods of increased alert when the potential of CBRN capability exists but there is no indication of CBRN use in the immediate future.

Use MOPP level ___ as the normal wartime Individual Protective Equipment level when the enemy has a CBRN capability.

Which MOPP level is ordered when CBRN attacks could occur with little or no warning or when CBRN contamination is present or suspected?

Wear all of these items during MOPP 2 except; field gear, overboots, overgarment, protective mask and gloves

Which item is carried in MOPP 3?

Use MOPP ___ during attack recovery, when CBRN contamination is present or suspected or when the maximum individual protection is needed.

What information do AFI 10-2501, Air Force Emergency Management, and AFMAN 10-2503, Ability to Survive and Operate in a CBRN environment contain?

When wearing a chemical protective overgarment, how should you wear specialized clothing such as wet and cold weather gear?

The major elements of a passive CBRN defense do not include

Contamination ___ actions prevent CBRN contamination of mission-essential resources and include covering and limiting entry to facilities, and detecting and identifying.

If contamination cannot be avoided, ___ provided survival measures to forces operating in a CBRN environment.

Individual protection measures in a CBRN environment do not include

___ is/are the best immediate protective equipment against chemical agents, regardless of the type of agent, concentration, or method of attack.

What items does individual protection, such as the Ground Crew Ensemble), include?

What will medical representatives issue during increased readiness?

Collective protection does not provide personnel

What actions do personnel not affected by an attack take?

Base personnel use the ___ report to quickly and effectively communicate enemy ground attack information up the chain of command in the attack response phase.

Who is responsible for protecting installation personnel, facilities, and resources from terrorism and CBRN threats?

Protective measures taken in response terrorist or CBRN attack do not include