3D1X2 Air Force
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From what career field skill sets was the Cyber Transport (3D1X2) career field derived?
Visual Imagery and Intrusion Detection Systems (2E1X4); Computer, Network, Switching, and Cryptographic Systems; Voice Network Systems; and Network Integration
Which AFSC installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems and plans for responding to service outages and interruptions to network operation?
Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2)
Which AFSC monitors and analyzes performance of underground, buried, and aerial cable, and antenna networks?
Cable and Antenna Systems (3D1X7)
What two documents provide a specialty summary and define the broad duties and responsibilities for the 3D1X2 Cyber Transport Systems career field?
Career Field Education & Training Plan (CFETP) and the Air Forcer Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD)
What systems and equipment do Cyber Transport Systems specialists deploy, sustain, troubleshoot, and repair?
Standard voice, data and video network infrastructure systems, IP detection systems and cryptographic equipment
Cyber Transport Systems specialists install, upgrade, replace, configure, and maintain systems/circuits/IP-based intrusion detection systems that access what type of networks?
Military, federal, and commercial networks
A duty and responsibility of a Cyber Transport Systems specialists is to apply communications security programs that include what four types of security?
Physical, cryptographic, transmission, and emission
During what meeting does the Cyber Transport Systems specialists serve as an adviser on information systems?
Facility design, military construction programs, and minor construction planning
A duty and responsibility of Cyber Transport Systems is to evaluate contracts, wartime, support, contingency, and exercise plans to determine impact on what?
Manpower, equipment, and systems
What is an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field(s) which makes a disproportionate contribution to the success of providing the right skills needed for military operations, anywhere, anytime?
Core competency
The Cyber Transport Systems core competencies include what four areas of responsibility?
Network integration; voice network systems; visual imagery and intrusion detection systems; and computer, network, switching, and cryptographic systems
Where does the Air Force publish industrial and general safety guidance?
In Air Force Instructions
Which Air Force instruction consolidates material in the 91-series of the AFOSH standards as they relate to general Air Force operations?
AFI 91-203
What guidance should you use when there is conflicting safety guidance?
The guidance that provides the most protection
What should you do if you encounter a hazardous situation not covered by existing directives?
Utilize the Risk Management (RM) process to assess the risk associated with the situation and then determine what adequate safeguards or procedures are necessary to manage risk
What is the purpose of Air Force Instructions 91-202?
To minimize the loss of Air Force resources and protect Air Force personnel from death, injuries, or occupational illnesses
What is JSTO?
An outline of mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare JSTG
What does the JSTG identify?
Applicable safety, fire protection/prevention, and health requirements for the specific work environment
What is the most common method of documenting the completion of mandatory employee safety training?
AF Form 55
You should report a personal injury; property damage; or any suspected exposure to biological, chemical, or nuclear hazardous materials to your supervisor within how many hours?
24 Hours
What are two of the most common causes for accidents and fires?
Carelessness ans sloppiness
What should you do if you notice a spill?
Take immediate action and clean it up
A situation that poses a level of threat to life, health, property, or environmental is defined as what?
Hazard
The primary responsibility for identifying workplace hazards rests with whom?
The individual
What program permits all Air Force personnel to alert supervisors and other appropriate officials of hazardous conditions that require prompt corrective action?
The USAF Hazard Reporting Program
The USAF Hazard Reporting Program authorizes the use of what form to identify and report hazards?
AF IMT 457
What are the four major types of hazards that can put both your health and safety at risk?
Chemical, physical, biological, and stress
Can lead to long-term health problems. Early signs include headaches, anxiety and impatience.
Stress
Contributing factors include fatigue, inattention, worry, anger, distraction, urgency, and lack of job knowledge
Human
Exists when there is a risk of direct skin contact, inhalation, accidental ingestion or absorption of hazardous chemicals.
Chemical
Includes any virus, bacteria, fungus, protozoan, insect,or other living organisms that can cause a disease in healthy humans.
Biological
Includes insufficient lighting, excessive levels of noise and vibration, pressure, temperature extremes, oxygen deficiency, and non-ionizing radiation
Physical
In general, the degree of risk associated with handling a specific chemical depends on what?
The toxicity of the chemical and the magnitude and duration of the exposure
What are the most common work center accidents?
1) Walking surface mishaps 2) Manual material handling mishaps 3) Electrical mishaps
What are the primary reasons for walking surface mishaps?
1) Poor housekeeping 2) Dangerous surface conditions 3) Inadequate lighting 4) Human factors
What are the most common physical acts responsible for manual handling injuries?
Lifting, carrying, dropping, and lowering
What factors influence the ability to manually lift an object?
The object's size, shape, weight, and distance of transfer
What is the preferred method to minimize the risks associated with manual lifting?
The use of engineering controls and mechanical assists
What determines the severity of an electric shock?
The amount of current flowing through the body, the time of exposure to the electricity, and the body's physical condition
A voltage that is capable of producing a current flow of how many milliamps can cause a shock that may result in cardiac arrests and be lethal?
50 milliamps or more
Most electrical accidents occur as a result of what?
Faulty or defective equipment, unsafe installations, improper grounding, misuse of equipment and poor work practices
What AFI directs specific LOTO requirements?
AFI 91-203
Why should you not rely on safety devices such as interlocks, high voltage disconnect relays, or automatic circuit grounds?
They are subject to failure
What is required when installing or repairing C&I systems, communication cables and antenna systems that may expose you to energized equipment, high voltage circuits (600 volts or above) or low voltage power if it is has a high current flow?
A qualified safety observer
If your equipment has a defective interlock, what should you do?
Notify all workers of the hazardous conditions and post a warning sign or tag on the equipment
Where are the requirements for Risk Management (RM) outlined?
Air Force Policy Directive 90-8
Where and when does the continuous Risk Management (RM) process apply?
Every career field and every individual in the Air Force, both in day-to-day activities and while on- or off- duty
What is a decision-making process used to systematically evaluate possible courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action for any given situation?
Risk Management
The appropriate use of RM increases an organization's and individual's ability to do what?
Safely and effectively accomplish their mission/activity while preserving lives and precious resources
What four principles govern all actions associated with the management of risk?
1) Accept no unnecessary risk 2) Make risk decisions at the appropriate level 3) Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels 4) Apply the process cyclically and continuously
What are the five steps in the RM process?
Step 1. Identify the Hazards. Step 2. Assess the hazards. Step 3. Develop controls and make decisions. Step 4. Implement controls. Step 5. Supervise and evaluate.
What is the fundamental objective of risk management?
To enhance mission effectiveness at all levels while preserving assets and safeguarding the health and welfare of personnel
What does boundary protection provide?
It provides protection of the base network perimeter using a protection device or systems of devices, such as firewalls, network intrusion detection systems, and filtering services.
What is an enclave?
A collection of computing environments connected by one or more internal networks under the control of a single authority and security policy, including personnel and physical security.
When an enclave does not have a firewall and IDS, what vulnerability category is it?
Category I
What is a Category II vulnerability?
Any vulnerability that provides information that has a high potential of giving access to an intruder or gives an unauthorized person the means to circumvent security controls.
Where are the two INOSCs located?
(1) Peterson AFB, Colorado. (2) Joint Base Langley-Eustis, Virginia.
What is a firewall?
An access control method that acts as a barrier between two of more segments of a network or infrastructure.
What term describes the technology for transmitting voice communication over a data network using open-standards-based IP?
IP telephony
What are the three reasons to consider using IP telephony in a network versus not using IP telephony?
1) Greater efficiency of bandwidth and equipment 2) Lower costs for telephony network transmission 3) Better consolidation of voice and data network expenses
What does the VoIP telephone system provide?
Telephone calls where at least part of the call travels over an IP network.
Which publications will assist you in implementing IP telephony firewall security?
TOs (Technical Orders) and TCNOs (Time Compliance)
What are the four categories of IP firewalls?
1) Personal/SOHO 2) Corporate/enterprise 3) Network level 4) Application level.
What is the major benefit of a personal/SOHO firewall?
They take little to no system administration experience
Name the two categories of network firewalls?
Packet filters and circuit layer gateways.
In which layer does a packet filter gateway work?
Layer 3
When are network-level firewalls normally used?
When speed is essential.
What does an ACL (Access Control List) verify?
If the source and destination data are valid
How must INOSC-managed firewalls be configured?
To implicitly deny traffic unless explicitly permitted via ACL entries or an IP filter supporting an approved AIS/mission requirement
What is an adverse event that threatens some element of computer security, such as loss of data?
A computer security incident
What results from a denial of service security incident?
Either a system is disabled or a worm has saturated network bandwidth
What is the primary intrusion detection tool deployed across the AFEN?
ASIM
What is an IDS?
A system that scans, audits, and monitors the security infrastructure for signs of attacks in progress.
What does an IDS monitor?
Network traffic and changes to computer settings to detect patterns that can indicate known intrusion attempts.
Which type of IDS monitors traffic and alerts administrators about suspicious traffic?
Passive IDS
What does a network-based IDS examine?
Network traffic for suspicious patterns.
What are three of the key points to remember when using an IDS?
1) Consider using both network-based IDS and host-based IDS 2) Frequently update IDS signatures 3) Understand the nature of intrusions that IDS can detect 4) Distinguish between real intrusions and false positives 5) Deploy IDS on each network segment 6) Use a centralized management console to manage IDS
What are the three types of intrusion detection methods?
1) Host-bases 2) Network-based 3) Application-based
What is a HIDS?
A system that primarily uses software installed on a specific host
What is the advantage of HIDS?
It can analyze any encrypted data, as long as decryption occurs before reaching the target host
What is a major drawback of NIDS?
It cannot analyze encrypted packets, because it has no method for decrypting the data
HIDS relies on the host for this, but NIDS relies on the network
Resource Utilization
Findings would be hard to use in court for NIDS
Legal issues
HIDS monitors files for policy violations; NIDS monitors packets for anomalies and viruses
Monitoring agent
May be present due to service agreements and policy restrictions of HIDS; not so for NIDS
Management issues
The ability of HIDS to secure a specific resource
Best use
HIDS has a narrow and very specific scope while NIDS has a very broad and general scope
Capabilities
HIDS primarily uses software sensors, but NIDS primarily uses hardware sensors
Components
HIDS can be both, but NIDS can only be one
Passive or active
Both HIDS and NIDS tell administrators of trouble conditions via management console or email mesages
Alerts
May happen with HIDS, but probably not with NIDS
Management issues
The ability of NIDS to secure a large area with non-critical data
Best use
HIDS monitors traffic on the installed host, while NIDS monitors traffic on specific network segment only
Monitoring method
Findings may be admissible as court evidence for HIDS
Legal issues
HIDS can analyze the encrypted data if decryption occurs before reaching the target host, but NIDS cannot analyze encrypted data
Encrypted data
When will wired systems detect a wireless threat?
When the threat transforms from a wireless to a wired threat
Who is responsible for incorporating intrusion detection methodologies into wireless systems?
DAAs
What are the two possible security postures that you can adopt as part of your general policy on internal control, and what is the difference between these two postures?
A "default deny" posture to deny everything not specifically authorized and and "open" posture to allow everything not specifically denied
There are many ways to classify network security threats, such as internal or external or as intentional or unintentional. What are three other ways in which to classify network threats?
Environmental, technological, and human
What form do technological threats come in?
The form of unauthorized access into the network, viruses, worms, Trojan horses, and DoS attacks
What do the letters CCR stand for?
Contain, clean, and report
What is one of the most important tools used to maintain internal control?
Compliance enforcement
What is the purpose of access control systems and practices?
To protect information from the threats of unauthorized disclosure, modifications, or destruction.
What are the two categories into which information security-related access controls fall? What are some examples of each?
Technical Controls (i.e passwords and encryption that are part of normal network security) Administrative controls (such as segregation of duties and security screening of users)
How do you control access to desktop systems connected to critical networks?
By a power-on logon ID and password combination or locked office
What is the first line of defense to protect a laptop computer?
Require a logon ID and password combination to gain access to the PC's operating system
Define war-dialing?
Dialing each number on a telephone exchange either sequentially or randomly to detect the existence of modems
Having information ready when needed
Availability
Assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information
Integrity
Inability to deny who performed network actions
Non-repudiation
Protection of the network from those not authorized access
Confidentiality
Use of remote access for changing passwords must be severely restricted unless what capability is in place?
A strongly encrypted VPN protects the entire session
What organization approves the high-robust encryption for all classified traffic transmitted across unsecured channels?
NSA
What are certificates?
Special files that contain information about you, who issued the certificate, what time frame it is good for and when it expires. It also contains your keys.
What are the two primary forms of encryption?
Asymmetric and symmetric
Air Force Information Assurance Program applies to what?
All ISs owned, operated, or supported by the Air Force
What three core disciplines does IA cover?
COMSEC, COMPUSEC, and EMSEC
What AFSSI series cover EMSEC?
AFSSI 7000 series
What is TEMPEST?
Three-dimensional space surrounding systems that process classified or sensitive information within which TEMPEST exploitation is not considered practical or where legal authority to identify or remove a potential TEMPEST exploitation exists
What is the definition of inspectable space?
Identify requirements from the standpoint of IA risk management principles and to provide the appropriate protection at the least possible cost; preferably at no cost at all
What is the primary objective of EMSEC?
The WIAO is the focal point at a given installation for EMSEC matters. The purpose of the WIAO is to access the need for EMSEC and determine the required countermeasures. The WIAO also advises the commander of the existing vulnerabilities, threats, and risks and recommends a course of action to the wing commander
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