Air ForceComprehensive Study Set

1N0X1 Air Force

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QUESTION 1

What is the requirement for becoming an Operations Intelligence Apprentice?

ANSWER

Completion of the Operations Intelligence Apprentice Course

QUESTION 2

For what skill level upgrade is the Career Development Course introduced?

ANSWER

Operations Intelligence Journeyman

QUESTION 3

List the training requirements for upgrade to the 5-skill level.

ANSWER

Certified on all core tasks identified in Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP), trained/signed off on all duty position tasks identified by supervisor, complete 1N051 Career Development Course, minimum 12 months of on-the-job training (OJT) or (9 months if retraining), receive upgrade recommendation from supervisor, receive upgrade approval from commander.

QUESTION 4

What is the minimum time required in upgrade training status for 7-level?

ANSWER

12 months of Upgrade Training (6 months if retraining)

QUESTION 5

What are the first two requirements for becoming an Operations Intelligence Superintendent?

ANSWER

Be at least a SMSgt; Graduate SNCO Academy

QUESTION 6

What AFI should you reference to determine trainee responsibilities?

ANSWER

AFI36-2201, Vol 3.

QUESTION 7

Who should the trainee request assistance from when having difficulty with any part of training?

ANSWER

Supervisor, trainer, or Unit Training Manager

QUESTION 8

In which enlisted tier do you become an expert, hands-on technician?

ANSWER

NCO Tier

QUESTION 9

What is the primary role of SNCOs in the final top enlisted tier?

ANSWER

To lead and manage teams as you translate direction from superiors into mission accomplishment

QUESTION 10

What is achieved by successfully completing your CCAF degree?

ANSWER

The "whole person" concept.

QUESTION 11

How many semester hours are required for an enlisted member to complete a CCAF degree?

ANSWER

64

QUESTION 12

How do you successfully complete the Leadership, Management, and Military Studies requirement for your CCAF degree?

ANSWER

Through Professional Military Education (Airman Leadership School) or civilian management courses

QUESTION 13

What is the definition of intelligence according to JP 1-02?

ANSWER

The product resulting from the collection, processing, integration, evaluation, analysis, and interpretation of available information concerning foreign nations, hostile or potentially hostile forces or elements, or areas of actual or potential operations.

QUESTION 14

Why is it important to understand how our career field supports the Air Force ISR mission?

ANSWER

Because of the reliance on intelligence has increased to such a degree that commanders in the field place as much importance on intelligence activities as they do on combat troops and weapons systems

QUESTION 15

How does JP 1-02 define all-source intelligence?

ANSWER

Intelligence products and/or organizations and activities that incorporate all sources of information, most frequently including human resources intelligence (HUMINT), imagery intelligence (GEOINT), measurement and signature intelligence (MASINT), signals intelligence (SIGINT), and open-source intelligence (OSINT) data in the production of finished intelligence.

QUESTION 16

Clarity is an important aspect to producing valid intelligence assessments; what helps an analyst maintain clarity?

ANSWER

Critical thinking

QUESTION 17

According to the Foundation for Critical Thinking, the purpose of asking yourself questions is to ensure your conclusions have what nine attributes?

ANSWER

Clarity, accuracy, precision, relevance, depth, breadth, logic, significance, and fairness.

QUESTION 18

Name the 8 attributes of intelligence excellence according to JP 2-0

ANSWER

Anticipatory, timely, accurate, usable, complete, relevant, objective, and available

QUESTION 19

What is the key to critical thinking?

ANSWER

Asking yourself questions.

QUESTION 20

IWS, Jabber, DCO, and mIRC are types of what?

ANSWER

Collaborative tools

QUESTION 21

What tool is designed to be a link analysis tool?

ANSWER

Analyst Notebook (ANB)

QUESTION 22

What is the DOD's authoritative database of general military intelligence including order of battle, installation, and facility intelligence?

ANSWER

Modernized Integrated Database (MIDB)

QUESTION 23

What is operated by the office of the Director of National Intelligence, and where does it reside? What does it provide?

ANSWER

Open Source Center (OSC) and it resides on classified networks and provides open source media from around the world.

QUESTION 24

What analysis methodology is most commonly associated with special operations forces?

ANSWER

Criticality, accessibility, recuperability, vulnerability, effect, recognizability (CARVER).

QUESTION 25

What does the acronym OODA mean?

ANSWER

Observe, Orient, Decide, and Act

QUESTION 26

What do commanders require to protect their forces and provide full-spectrum, integrated defense?

ANSWER

Timely and credible intelligence

QUESTION 27

What is the first step in force protection?

ANSWER

Risk management

QUESTION 28

Who operates the ORM process for commanders?

ANSWER

Integrated Defense Working Group

QUESTION 29

What is the primary function of the TWG?

ANSWER

To assess the threat for the commander and recommend COAs to mitigate or counter the threat

QUESTION 30

What fuses information and intelligence from multiple sources with other information into a cohesive threat picture helpful to FP decision makers?

ANSWER

Threat assessment

QUESTION 31

What does a tactical intelligence package support?

ANSWER

A mission dedicated to a high value target (HVT) or a high value individual (HVI)

QUESTION 32

What is the definition of integrated defense?

ANSWER

The application of active and passive defense measures, employed across the legally-defined ground dimension of the operation environment, to mitigate potential risks and defeat adversary threats to Air Force operations

QUESTION 33

What are the objectives of integrated defense?

ANSWER

see first, understand first, and act first

QUESTION 34

What does an intelligence analyst produce for the common operation picture, and what does it do for the commander?

ANSWER

The intelligence analyst helps produce a common, current, and relevant picture of the battle space that reduces uncertainty and shortens the commander's decision-making process by providing situational awareness

QUESTION 35

What is the BDOC?

ANSWER

Base Defense Operations Center - command and control center for integrated defense (ID) operations during routine and emergency operations

QUESTION 36

Who identifies the Base Security Zone (BSZ)?

ANSWER

Installation Commander

QUESTION 37

What is Force Protection intelligence?

ANSWER

Analyzed, all-source information concerning threats to DOD missions, people or resources arising from terrorists, criminal entities, foreign intelligence and security services and opposing military forces

QUESTION 38

How is the intelligence fusion cell different from the threat working group?

ANSWER

The IFC is a tactical-level action team that functions in tandem with the Defense Force Commander's (DFC) operations staff in the planning and execution of Integrated Defense (ID). A TWG is a multi-functional group established at the installation and self-supported separate facilities and higher that meets at least quarterly or more frequently depending upon level of threat activity, to develop and refine terrorism threat assessments and coordinate and disseminate threat warnings, reports, and summaries.

QUESTION 39

What is the minimal composition for the intelligence fusion cell?

ANSWER

Air Force Intelligence, AFOSI, and Security Forces Specialists

QUESTION 40

How does Counterintelligence (CI) support the foreign intelligence missions?

ANSWER

It supports the foreign intelligence disciplines through its contribution to the indications and warning (I&W) function, by its collection, analysis and production capabilities, and by maintenance of CI databases

QUESTION 41

What agency has the primary responsibility for Counterintelligence (CI) and counterterroism operations conducted in the United States?

ANSWER

FBI

QUESTION 42

Does the primary Counterintelligence (CI) agency for operations in the US share law enforcement and CI information? If so, with whom?

ANSWER

Yes, with appropriate DOD entities and combatant commanders

QUESTION 43

What is a conventional threat?

ANSWER

Regular military forces supported by a recognized government

QUESTION 44

To whom would an intelligence analyst confer with over criminal threats?

ANSWER

AFOSI and local law enforcement

QUESTION 45

Name three objectives of attacks

ANSWER

(1) Injure or kill personnel to create a tactical and/or strategic event (2) Destroy war-fighting or war-supporting capabilities (3) Deny use of war-fighting or war-supporting capabilities through damage or contamination (4) Deny or disrupt military operations through the threat of attack (5) Influence public opinion and/or governmental policies to comply with competing ideologies (6) Force nations deployed on foreign soil to end operations and depart the deployed location (7) Thrust a nation into civil unrest resulting in civil war (8) Force a government agency or corporation to alter its policies (9) Reduce military advantage through theft, destruction, or fraud involving military information or technology (10) Generate criminal activity such as kidnapping, robbery, and extortion likely used to finance terrorist operations

QUESTION 46

What is the goal of the CBRNE attack?

ANSWER

To deny or hinder the use of areas, facilities, or materials

QUESTION 47

Which attack is hard to determine if it was an actual attack or an accident and why is it hard to tell the difference?

ANSWER

Information operations attacks due to the insidious nature of these events

QUESTION 48

Name the six intelligence operations that make up the ISR process

ANSWER

(1) Planning and Direction (2) Collection (3) Processing and Exploitation (4) Analysis and Production (5) Dissemination and Integration (6) Evaluation and Feedback

QUESTION 49

Does the ISR process always follow a sequential order?

ANSWER

No. It's not a linear or cyclical operation but rather a network of interrelated, simultaneous operations that can, at any given time, be fed by and feed other intelligence operations.

QUESTION 50

What is the overall output of the ISR process?

ANSWER

The output of the overall process is actionable intelligence - timely, accurate, and complete - that provides intelligence on an adversary's dispositions, strategy, tactics, intent, objectives, strengths, weaknesses, values, capabilities, and critical vulnerabilities

QUESTION 51

What is the difference between information and intelligence?

ANSWER

Information is data that has been collected, but not further developed through analysis, interpretation, or correlation with other data and intelligence. Analysis transforms information into intelligence.

QUESTION 52

What are CCIRs and what do they accomplish?

ANSWER

Commander's Critical Information Requirements (CCIR) - are a comprehensive list of information requirements identified by the commander as being critical to facilitating timely information management and the decision-making process

QUESTION 53

Define standing requirements and spot requirements

ANSWER

Standing - provides information necessary for mid- and long-range planning. they are broad, continuing requirements that generally follow a fixed pattern. Some standing requirements may be equally valid in limited war or crisis situations involving US forces Spot - During military operations or crisis situations, a need for intelligence often arises that cannot be satisfied by a pre-established, standing requirement. In this case, a spot or ad hoc requirement is developed to answer very specific questions or problems. Spot requirements normally involve time-dominant information and are highly perishable

QUESTION 54

What are EEIs?

ANSWER

They define intelligence consumers' specific information requirements

QUESTION 55

When are OPLANS normally prepared?

ANSWER

(1) The contingency is critical to national security and requires detailed prior planning (2) The magnitude or timing of the contingency requires detailed planning (3) Detailed planning is required to support multinational planning (4) The feasibility of the plan's CONOPS cannot be determined without detailed planning

QUESTION 56

Define the collection process

ANSWER

The collection portion of the ISR process involves tasking appropriate collection assets to acquire the required data to accomplish collection tasking. Collection includes the identification, coordination, and positioning of assets to satisfy intelligence requirements.

QUESTION 57

Name the four collection management principles

ANSWER

(1) Early Identification of Requirements (2) Prioritization of Requirements (3) Multidiscipline Approach (4) Task Organic Assets First

QUESTION 58

When does dynamic re-tasking of ISR assets occur?

ANSWER

Dynamic re-tasking occurs when the requester identifies a time-sensitive need after the appropriate ISR asset has already been tasked

QUESTION 59

What is the covert method of collection?

ANSWER

Operation planned and executed to conceal the identity or to permit plausible denial of sponsorship

QUESTION 60

What is the discreet method of collection?

ANSWER

Conducted quietly and cautiously to avoid undue curiosity

QUESTION 61

What is the clandestine method of collection?

ANSWER

Planned and conducted to conceal the existence of the operation itself

QUESTION 62

What is the overt method of collection?

ANSWER

Conducted openly and may be acknowledged by and attributed to its sponsors and participants

QUESTION 63

What is the primary vehicle used to transmit collected information?

ANSWER

The Intelligence Information Report (IIR) - provide unevaluated, raw information gathered in response to intelligence collection requirements

QUESTION 64

What is accomplished through the processing and exploitation process?

ANSWER

The collected raw data is converted into information that can be readily disseminated, used, transmitted, and exploited by intelligence analysts to produce multidisciplinary intelligence products

QUESTION 65

How doers processing differ from analysis and production?

ANSWER

Processing remains distinct from analysis and production in that the resulting information receives only a cursory analysis for time-critical exploitation and has not yet been subjected to full analytical assessment

QUESTION 66

List the four phases of the analysis and production process and briefly describe each

ANSWER

(1) Integration - the process of forming an intelligence pattern through the selection and combination of evaluated information (2) Evaluation - assessment of information for pertinence, accuracy, and reliability of the source. Evaluation is closely associated with the entire ISR process, because you must critique the ability of the collected information to satisfy the original requirement (3) Analysis - the analyst continues to study and evaluate the facts and relate them to other sources of intelligence information (4) Interpretation - the final step in the production of intelligence from collected information. It is the process of causing items of intelligence information to make sense when placed in the proper relationship to a give situation

QUESTION 67

What is the overall objective of the integration phase?

ANSWER

To form a logical picture or hypothesis of enemy activity

QUESTION 68

What happens to collected information during the evaluation phase?

ANSWER

Collected information is appraised in terms of its source reliability, the accuracy of the individual, reported facts, and the overall credibility of the reported information

QUESTION 69

What is the "coherence theory of truth"?

ANSWER

Should be used to determine what information is most likely to be true. It is based on the premise that information confirmed most often by independent sources is more likely to be true, versus conflicting information confirmed by a lesser number of sources

QUESTION 70

What do collection agencies use to indicate the probable value of information?

ANSWER

An evaluation code to indicate the probable value of the information that they report

QUESTION 71

What are the results of the analysis phase?

ANSWER

Analysis results aid in identifying related materials, providing factual background information, and verifying new information, which are all necessary conditions for producing valid new intelligence.

QUESTION 72

How are intelligence analysts able to share information, discuss opinions, debate hypothesis and identify or resolve analytic disagreements?

ANSWER

Through collaboration

QUESTION 73

List the various forms of dissemination

ANSWER

Electronic transmission (soft copy) OR written reports/briefings (hard copy)

QUESTION 74

What dissemination method has become the predominant way of communicating finished intelligence products?

ANSWER

Soft copy dissemination

QUESTION 75

Why does hard copy dissemination still remain as a valid way to deliver intelligence?

ANSWER

Due to operations involving allied or coalition forces and because US intelligence equipment and system architectures are often not compatible or at the same security level

QUESTION 76

What is a Basic Intelligence Report?

ANSWER

Mainstay of the intelligence community, concentrates on description with a secondary focus on explanations and evalution

QUESTION 77

What is an Estimative Intelligence Report?

ANSWER

Deals with events of subjects that have not yet happened

QUESTION 78

What is a Current Intelligence Report?

ANSWER

Centers around ongoing dynamic events and attempts to describe events and predict their possible outcome

QUESTION 79

What is an intelligence summary?

ANSWER

Summaries of events where only the most significant information is included

QUESTION 80

What is the purpose of intelligence annexes and appendices?

ANSWER

The intelligence annex provides detailed information on what intelligence must be collected, produced, and disseminated to support an operations plan or operations order. Appendices are used to provide additional information to an annex. The intelligence annex is also used by commanders to inform their forces of the current enemy situation and are of operations

QUESTION 81

How do analysts and operational planners integrate intelligence and how is it portrayed?

ANSWER

Common Operating Picture (COP) - depicts friendly, adversary, and third-party (gray/unknown) force dispositions and contacts on tailored graphical backgrounds. It includes a variety of near-real time friendly and adversary air, ground, space, and maritime tracks, threat/warning data, and intelligence broadcasts.

QUESTION 82

When is an intelligence requirement satisfied an subsequently closed?

ANSWER

If the intelligence provided to the requester is complete, timely, and in a usable format

QUESTION 83

Who is responsible for evaluating how well intelligence is disseminated and integrated with operations?

ANSWER

Intelligence and operations personnel

QUESTION 84

On what should your unit training programs focus?

ANSWER

What you want the aircrews to report and the procedures they are to use

QUESTION 85

What could a good training session for collection and reporting include?

ANSWER

The use of head-up display (HUD) and weapons system videotapes or audio recordings that were made during actual or simulated combat missions

QUESTION 86

What is the most important aspect of intelligence reporting?

ANSWER

Content

QUESTION 87

Which message-writting component ensures that your message serves its purpose at its destination?

ANSWER

Accuracy

QUESTION 88

Who assigns the precedence or priority designator to a message?

ANSWER

Originator

QUESTION 89

On what are speed of service (SOS) objectives based?

ANSWER

The total time it takes to process a message, from the time it is filed at the originating communications center, to the time it is delivered to the addressee's communications center

QUESTION 90

What type of hits would be listed in target hit claims?

ANSWER

Vehicles, rail cuts, artillery, troops, radar sites, airfields, missile launching sites, etc.

QUESTION 91

Why is AAA reporting difficult for aircrews?

ANSWER

The weapons are small and easy to camoflauge

QUESTION 92

What message set of a MISREP would you fill in if your aircrew performed an armed over watch mission?

ANSWER

ISR

QUESTION 93

If you have an electromagnetic interference (EMI) input on a MISREP, what follow-on report do you submit?

ANSWER

Joint Spectrum Interference Report

QUESTION 94

What message set of a MISREP summarizesw the mission in chronological order?

ANSWER

Narrative

QUESTION 95

Which intelligence report provides timely information regarding events that could have an immediate and significant effect on current planning and operations, or information that may be of timely interest at the national level?

ANSWER

INTREP - Intelligence Report

QUESTION 96

Which intelligence report summarizes, amplifies, and clarifies information previously reported in MISREPs, INTREPs, and other intelligence reports, and is produced and disseminated every 12 hours?

ANSWER

INTSUM - Intelligence Summary

QUESTION 97

Which intelligence report is used to inform higher headquarters with a summary of the situation at the local base?

ANSWER

SITREP - Situation Report

QUESTION 98

RC-135U Combat Sent collects and minutely examines each system, providing what type of analysis for war fighters?

ANSWER

Strategic & Analysis

QUESTION 99

The RC-135S Cobra Ball has what type of intelligence discipline sensors?

ANSWER

SIGINT & MASINT

QUESTION 100

What is the MR-Mk1 Nimrod's mission?

ANSWER

A UK asset originally designed as a maritime patrol and anti-submarine aircraft, the Nimrod has become famous for its role in support of many air-sea rescues as well as its use in combined efforts with the US performing counter-narcotic activity in the Caribbean

QUESTION 101

What is the mission of the P-3 AIP?

ANSWER

Employed as an anti-submarine warfare (ASW) and surface warfare (SUW) platform, the P-3C AIP provides significant ISR capabilities in a wide range of tactical scenarios

QUESTION 102

Name two ways that the Predator can provide support to the AC-130

ANSWER

(1) Limited hard target kill capability and threat supression (2) Remote off-board video enhanced receiver (ROVER) modication

QUESTION 103

What type of collection is the TARS (Theater Air Reconnaissance System) sensor capable of producing?

ANSWER

Imagery

QUESTION 104

What type of imagery can the F/A-18D (RC) provide?

ANSWER

Electro-optical (EO), infrared (IR), and synthetic aperture radar (SAR) sensors for the gathering of image data

QUESTION 105

Name four factors that operators must fully understand to successfully employ their weapon systems

ANSWER

(1) The mission (2) The enemy (3) The threat (4) The weapon system

QUESTION 106

In what two roles can the U-2 be employed?

ANSWER

Stand off or penetration roles

QUESTION 107

Where does ISR tasking start in the TCPED model?

ANSWER

All ISR tasking starts with the commander's guidance

QUESTION 108

Define the multidiscipline approach

ANSWER

This approach is based on the principle that sensors can complement each other, and collection managers must resist favoring or becoming too reliant on a particular sensor, system, or technique

QUESTION 109

Define asset mix and/or redundancy approach

ANSWER

Uses a combination of assets of differing disciplines (asset mix) or similar disciplines (asset redundancy) against a high priority target. When the probability of success of one sensor to completely satisfy the requirement is lower than acceptable, the use of multiple capabilities of different systems or disciplines increases the likelihood of success

QUESTION 110

Define resources integration

ANSWER

A new collection requirement is integrated with current or planned missions to increase the efficiency of the overall collection effort. By tasking a mission already in progress, it may be possible to reduce timeliness, make collection more responsive to the request, and decrease cost risk.

QUESTION 111

Define persistent surveillance

ANSWER

Provide near-continuous surveillance over large portions of the battlespace to monitor, track, characterize, and report moving objects

QUESTION 112

Define dynamic retasking

ANSWER

Changes to preplanned ISR missions executed while the platform is airborne

QUESTION 113

Define NTISR

ANSWER

Employs a sensor not normally used for ISR as part of an integrated collection plan developed at the operation level for both prelanned and ad hoc collection

QUESTION 114

What type of planning should occur early in the joint operation planning process so planned redeployment operations reflect exit or transition strategy concerns developed during mission analysis?

ANSWER

Redeployment planning

QUESTION 115

What command and control center at the operation-level provides the commander Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) with the capability to direct and supervise the activities of assigned and attached forces and to monitor the actions of both enemy and friendly forces?

ANSWER

AOC

QUESTION 116

What is the mission of the ISRD?

ANSWER

To effectively and efficiently orient the JFACC and JAOC to current and emerging enemy capabilities, threats, COAs, and centers of gravity (COG) with predictive and actionable intelligence, and to provide the JFACC with ISR operations management and targeting intelligence support

QUESTION 117

Name the four teams of the ISRD

ANSWER

ACF team, Target/tactical assessment (TGT/TA) team, ISR Ops team, PED management

QUESTION 118

Name five of the 11 responsibilities of the ISR ops team

ANSWER

(1) Guidance and objectives refinement (2) Strategy-to-task development (3) Prioritizing requirements (4) Integrating ISR and combat operations (to include strike operations) (5) Developing the ISR platform schedule (6) Collection management (7) PED management (8) Building collection tasking (9) Tasking the sensors and PED nodes through development of the RSTA annex (10) Execution of the RSTA annex (11) Dynamically adjusting platform/sensor/PED tasking as required during execution, and ISR operations assessment

QUESTION 119

What is the RSTA annex?

ANSWER

The ISR supplement to the ATO. It contains detailed tasking of intelligence collection sensors and PED nodes, providing specific guidance to tasked ISR assets, including ISR assets, ISR platforms, sensors, and PED nodes/architecture

QUESTION 120

What is the ISR synch matrix?

ANSWER

A graphical representation of the ISR schedule integrated with combat operations

QUESTION 121

What part of the TCPED cycle refers to getting the data from the sensor to the exploiters and making that data useful?

ANSWER

Processing

QUESTION 122

In what phase is information collected, analyzed, and turned into useful, actionable intelligence to be disseminated?

ANSWER

Exploitation

QUESTION 123

What two methods are used to disseminate information that has been processed, analyzed, and exploited?

ANSWER

Push or pull method

QUESTION 124

What team is the ISRD focal point for implementing, coordinating, and maintaining PED support from units/agencies outside the AOC?

ANSWER

The PED management team

QUESTION 125

Who does the PED management team coordinate with in order to facilitate a robust PED program?

ANSWER

With joint, coalition, component, and national agency intelligence producers

QUESTION 126

What are the three major planning priorities in mission planning?

ANSWER

(1) Delivery of the weapons on the target (2) Survival of the aircrew (3) Recovery of the aircraft

QUESTION 127

Who has ultimate responsibility for the success or failure of all mission planning?

ANSWER

The unit commander

QUESTION 128

What is the first step in the mission planning cycle?

ANSWER

To receive the ATO

QUESTION 129

Who validates the pre-planned missions based on OPLAN operations?

ANSWER

The Mission Folder Review Board

QUESTION 130

What document must be completed after missions are flown and mission debriefings have been conducted?

ANSWER

MISREPS (Mission Reports)

QUESTION 131

What are the three key factors in the mission planning process?

ANSWER

(1) Mission tasking (2) Target identification (3) Mission route characteristics

QUESTION 132

From where does the target identification come?

ANSWER

Usually from higher headquarters via an ATO or operation plan (OPLAN)

QUESTION 133

What is the primary chart used to depict the entire combat mission route on one chart page?

ANSWER

A global navigation and planning chart (GNC), or a jet navigation chart (JNC)

QUESTION 134

What is the primary chart used to depict routes within the target area?

ANSWER

Join operations graphic (JOG)

QUESTION 135

What is the definition of the air tasking cycle?

ANSWER

A six phase process that provides for the effective and efficient employment of air capabilities and forces

QUESTION 136

What is the end product of the target development phase?

ANSWER

The draft joint integrated prioritized target list (JIPTL) that supports the objectives and conforms to guidance

QUESTION 137

What products are produced by combat plans after the master air attack plan (MAAP) is approved by the JFACC?

ANSWER

The ATO, special instructions (SPINS), and the airspace control order

QUESTION 138

Name the six steps in the air tasking cycle

ANSWER

(1) JFC and Component Coordination (2) Target development (3) Weaponeering and allocation (4) ATO Production (5) Force Execution (6) Combat assessment

QUESTION 139

In what phase of the air tasking cycle is the ATO executed?

ANSWER

Phase (5), Force Execution phase

QUESTION 140

During Phase 6 - combat assessment, what are some considerations the JFC may make? What are some questions he must consider?

ANSWER

Considerations may be battle damage, COAs, and objective areas. Must consider "are we doing things right" and "are we doing the right things?"

QUESTION 141

Define ATO

ANSWER

A method used to task and disseminate to components, subordinate units, and command and control agencies projected sorties, capabilities and/or forces to targets specific missions. Normally provides specific instructions to include call signs, targets, controlling agencies, as well as general instructions

QUESTION 142

In what format are ATOs written?

ANSWER

US Message Text Format 2000 (USMTF)

QUESTION 143

How are ATOs structured?

ANSWER

ATOs are made up of lines called "sets" using the MTF as opposed to plain english. Each set is made up of fields identified by a single slash. At the beginning of each set is the set identifier. The end of each set is identified by a double slash

QUESTION 144

Traditionally, what two formats are SPINS broken out into?

ANSWER

Within the ATO and web posting

QUESTION 145

Who is normally the OPR for Section 3 - Communications of the web based SPINS?

ANSWER

C2 Planning

QUESTION 146

ATO SPINS are normally written in what format?

ANSWER

Same MTF as the ATO (USMTF)

QUESTION 147

What are the four steps in the IPOE process?

ANSWER

(1) The operational environment (2) The operational environment effects (3) The adversary (4) Adversary courses of action

QUESTION 148

What is the desired end effect of Step 1 of the IPOE effort?

ANSWER

To focus the IPOE effort and areas and characteristics of the operational environment that most influence campaign or mission execution

QUESTION 149

What is the primary reason for mission analysis by the IPOE analyst?

ANSWER

To thoroughly understand the informational requirements of the commander being supported

QUESTION 150

The operational area is that portion of the battlespace for which _________ is conducted?

ANSWER

In which military operations are conducted to accomplish a specific mission

QUESTION 151

What increases when time constraints are put on the IPOE process?

ANSWER

The number of assumptions

QUESTION 152

When graphically representing an AOI, what should be included?

ANSWER

The adjacent countries that are allied with the adversary, allied and coalition forces, and neutral countries.

QUESTION 153

Outside the areospace environment and information operations, give examples of possible elements that would be relevant to a commander's mission

ANSWER

The electromagnetic spectrum, coalition political factors, and cultural differences

QUESTION 154

Identifying significant characteristics of the operational environment aids the IPOE process by doing what?

ANSWER

Identifies information gaps, focuses ISR tasking, and establishes a baseline analytical database

QUESTION 155

The areospace environment is divided into two sub dimensions, what are they?

ANSWER

Air and Space

QUESTION 156

When determining the dimensions of the operation environment, what is the most difficult to precisely define?

ANSWER

The information dimension

QUESTION 157

What factor will shape the way military operations are conducted?

ANSWER

The human factor

QUESTION 158

What are the eight aspects of the human dimension?

ANSWER

(1)Political factors, (2) international relationships, (3) Socio-cultural and psychological factors, (4) economic elements, (5) population demographics, (6) infrastructure, (7) rules of engagement and laws of armed conflict, (8) military forces and objectives

QUESTION 159

How does identifying intelligence gaps early in the IPOE process aid ISR operations?

ANSWER

Allows ISR operations to be tailored to meet specific needs

QUESTION 160

What is the purpose of Step 2 in the IPOE process?

ANSWER

To determine how the battlespace affects both adversary and friendly operations

QUESTION 161

What is the desired effect of Step 2?

ANSWER

To identify how the operational environment influences operations and COA of threat and friendly forces

QUESTION 162

Name the five dimensions in the physical environment

ANSWER

(1) Air (2) Space (3) Land (4) Sea (5) Information

QUESTION 163

Why are weather effects important when analyzing the battlespace effects?

ANSWER

Weather can interact with, and thereby modify the environmental characteristics of each battlespace dimension and can directly affect the military operations

QUESTION 164

What are three significant factors that influence the military use of the space environment?

ANSWER

(1) Absence of atmospheric conditions (2) Limitations dictated by the laws of physics on orbiting bodies (3) Cosmic effects of the sun

QUESTION 165

On what does analysis of the land portion of the operational environment focus?

ANSWER

Transportation systems, surface materials, ground water, natural obstacles, types and distribution of vegetation, and configuration of surface drainage

QUESTION 166

What restrictions do "green water" areas pose to forces in the operation environment?

ANSWER

Straits or choke points that restrict tactical maneuver or affect weapon or sensor effectiveness

QUESTION 167

The information domain of the operational environment is composed of what elements?

ANSWER

Information data, information systems, and information functions

QUESTION 168

Why is weather analysis performed for each mission within the IPOE process?

ANSWER

Analysis determines the weather's direct effects on aerospace and information operations

QUESTION 169

Define center of gravity (COG)

ANSWER

Those characteristics, capabilities, or localities from which a military force, nation, or alliance derives its freedom of action, physical strength, or will to fight.

QUESTION 170

How is a modified combined overlay (MCOO) used?

ANSWER

Used as a baseline for the situation template and to assess environmental impact on a broad enemy and friendly COA.

QUESTION 171

Describe the importance of an avenue of approach (AA) in an MCOO

ANSWER

Avenues of Approach (AA) are important because many COAs are based on the available AA or lack there of

QUESTION 172

What is the purpose of Step 3 in the IPOE process?

ANSWER

To determine the adversary's COG, capabilities, doctrinal principles, and applicable tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTP).

QUESTION 173

What is the desired end effect of Step 3? How is it achieved?

ANSWER

To understand the source from which the adversary gets their strength; achieved through COG analysis and the development of adversary models that accurately portray how adversary forces normally execute operations and how they have reacted in similar situations in the past.

QUESTION 174

What is the desired end state of center of gravity (COG) analysis?

ANSWER

Adversarial operational paralysis

QUESTION 175

What is the main objective of COG analysis?

ANSWER

To reduce the adversary's overall abilities to effectively field resistance to opposing forces

QUESTION 176

When conducting command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence (C4I) COG analysis, what is a major point to consider?

ANSWER

The ability of lower echelons of command to effectively operate autonomously

QUESTION 177

Why is COG analysis key at the infrastructure level?

ANSWER

To ensure that these elements are not key terrain required for subsequent friendly follow on operations.

QUESTION 178

Briefly describe what two different affects an adversarial country's population can have on its ability to wage war.

ANSWER

May be able to extend or intensify its level of war effort or serve to demoralize and defeat the will of the people to actively support a war effort

QUESTION 179

Within Warden's 5-ring model, which is the least effective target for air power to decisively destroy directly and for what four reasons?

ANSWER

Fielded forces: (1) the expanse of the operational environment (2) quantity and array of adversary forces (3) limited friendly resources (4) the element of time

QUESTION 180

Briefly describe the difference between a high-value target (HVT) and a high-payoff target (HPT)

ANSWER

HVTs are adversary assets important for adversary operations to succeed. HPTs are adversary assets important for friendly operations to succeed

QUESTION 181

Analyzing what seven political/military factors can provide the current adversary situation and their objectives?

ANSWER

(1) Composition (2) Disposition (3) Strength (4) Tactics (5) Training (6) Logistics (7) C2 (command and control)

QUESTION 182

What is the purpose of Step 4 in the IPOE process?

ANSWER

To identify likely adversary COAs that can be exploited to shape the operational environment and accomplish the friendly mission

QUESTION 183

What is the desired end-state for Step 4?

ANSWER

To estimate the set of specific COAs that the adversary commander and staff are considering

QUESTION 184

The adversary's objectives and desired end-state is identified by analyzing what five things?

ANSWER

(1) National goals (2) national security strategy (3) current military and political situation (4) strategic and operational capabilities (5) the characteristics of the adversary nation

QUESTION 185

If attempting "reverse IPOE" to discern the adversary's perception of the friendly COAs, what must be understood?

ANSWER

Understanding of the adversary's decision making process as well as an appreciation for how the adversary perceives the current situation

QUESTION 186

When attempting to identify the available adversary COAs, what "wildcards" may exist that could help to determine them?

ANSWER

Ignorance of the military arts and sciences; immature decision making; uncertainty as to friendly disposition or intent; unexpected objectives or desired end states; desperation; bureaucratic inefficency

QUESTION 187

Each COA should meet what criteria?

ANSWER

(1) Suitability (2) Feasibility (3) Acceptability (4) Uniqueness (5) Consistency with doctrine

QUESTION 188

To ensure completeness in the analysis, what eight questions should a COA answer, if possible?

ANSWER

Who, what, where, when, why, how, how often, and to what extent

QUESTION 189

What is the description of a named area of interest (NAI)?

ANSWER

The geographical area where information, that will satisfy a specific information requirement, can be collected

QUESTION 190

Analysts who focus on political/economic considerations and possible intervention by third-party countries are conducting what level of IPOE?

ANSWER

Strategic level IPOE

QUESTION 191

What level of IPOE provides key decision-makers with operation environment effects, limits the adversary's options, and identifies the elements of the adversary's HVTs?

ANSWER

Operational level IPOE

QUESTION 192

What is the role of the JFACC in the IPOE process?

ANSWER

Provide achievable and measurable guidance, objectives, and intent for IPOE

QUESTION 193

What do the operations and plans staffs develop for the IPOE process?

ANSWER

Develop CCIR for the commander's approval and identify essential elements of friendly information (EEFI) with the intelligence staff

QUESTION 194

What is the role of the A2 within the IPOE process?

ANSWER

Develops and recommends priority intelligence requirements (PIR), develops collection requirements (CR), production requirements (PR), and collection strategies to address CCIR and EEFI

QUESTION 195

What does the IPOE process provide intelligence and operations personnel during combat operations?

ANSWER

A constantly maintained combat intelligence baseline from which to plan operations

QUESTION 196

What is intelligence synchronization, and why is it important to create a synchronization matrix?

ANSWER

The coordination of ISR with operation decisions and the intelligence cycle; in order to collect and provide in a timely manner all the intelligence required to support friendly operations

QUESTION 197

What bands are within the electromagnetic spectrum?

ANSWER

Gamma rays, X-rays, Ultraviolet (UV), visible, infrared (IR), and radio (RF)

QUESTION 198

All EM energy behaves in what type of manner?

ANSWER

The same

QUESTION 199

Give an example of terrain masking

ANSWER

A mountain in between the radar and the target

QUESTION 200

What does radar stand for?

ANSWER

Radio detection and ranging

QUESTION 201

How fast does a radio frequency signal travel?

ANSWER

186,000 statute miles per second OR the speed of light

QUESTION 202

What is wavelength?

ANSWER

The measure of the physical distance between peaks of a sine wave propagated in space

QUESTION 203

What is the height of a target, and in what two ways is this measurement expressed?

ANSWER

Altitude and above ground level (AGL) or mean sea level (ASL)

QUESTION 204

What are the four main types of radar?

ANSWER

(1) Pulse (2) Doppler (3) Pulse Doppler (4) Mono pulse

QUESTION 205

Which type of radar provides accurate range information?

ANSWER

Pulse

QUESTION 206

What are the three main types of antennas?

ANSWER

(1) Parabolic (2) Cassegrain (3) Phased array

QUESTION 207

What type of scan shapes the radar beam electronically instead of mechanically?

ANSWER

Electronic scan (ESA)

QUESTION 208

What components generally make up a ground control intercept (GCI) site and why?

ANSWER

Height finder and early warning radar because they provide range, azimuth, and elevation needed to conduct fighter intercepts or hand offs to surface to air missile systems

QUESTION 209

Explain the differences between semiactive and active radar homing?

ANSWER

Semiactive radar homing missiles home in on reflected radar energy from an external radar illumination source. Active radar missiles use the radar within the missile nose to illuminate, track, and guide to target

QUESTION 210

What are the three major subdivisions of electronic warfare (EW)?

ANSWER

(1) Electronic attack (EA) (2) Electronic protection (EP) (3) Electronic warfare support (ES)

QUESTION 211

What is electronic attack?

ANSWER

A subdivision of electronic warfare (EW) involving the use of electromagnetic (EM) energy, directed energy (DE), or antiradiation weapons to attack personnel, facilities, or equipment with the intent to degrade, neutralize, or destroy enemy combat capability

QUESTION 212

What are the three types of noise jamming?

ANSWER

(1) Barrage (2) Spot (3) Swept spot

QUESTION 213

Self protection jamming is designed to counter what threats?

ANSWER

Surface to air missiles, airborne interceptor, antiaircraft artillery acquisition, and target tracking radars

QUESTION 214

What is Suppression of Enemy Air Defense?

ANSWER

SEAD is that activity in which neutralizes, destroys, or temporarily degrades enemy air defense weapon systems in a specific area through physical attack

QUESTION 215

What is estimation?

ANSWER

Estimation allows the radar to calculate where the target will be next if the radar loses its track or is in a high EA environment. It uses the direction, velocity, and altitude prior to the loss to estimate where the target will be to avoid interrupting the fire control solution

QUESTION 216

What is burn through?

ANSWER

Burn through occurs when the power in the reflected target signal exceeds the power in the jamming signal

QUESTION 217

What are the two types of decoys?

ANSWER

Saturation and towed

QUESTION 218

What is electronic warfare support?

ANSWER

ES refers to that division of EW involving actions tasked by, or under direct control of, an operational commander to search for, intercept, identify, and locate or localize sources of intentional and unintentional radiated EM energy for the purpose of immediate threat recognition, targeting, planning and conduct of future operations. ES data can be used to produce SIGINT, provide targeting for electronic or destructive attack

QUESTION 219

What is the joint restricted frequency list (JRFL)?

ANSWER

JRFL is a list that operational, intelligence, and support elements use to identify the level of protection desired for various networks and frequencies and is limited to the number of frequencies necessary for friendly forces to accomplish JTF objectives

QUESTION 220

How is IR subdivided?

ANSWER

(1) Near IR: .75 micron to 1.5 micron (2) Midwave IR: 1.5 micron to 5.5 micron (3) Far IR: 5.5 micron to 1,000 micron

QUESTION 221

What is emissivity?

ANSWER

The percentage of energy directed by each of the processes depends on the specific properties of the material that is struck. Emissivity is a measure of how well an object absorbs incident IR radiation and reradiates it. This property is determined primarily by the physical characteristics of the object to include its surface texture, color, and thermal capacity

QUESTION 222

What is thermal crossover?

ANSWER

Time during the day when the background and the target emit the same amount of IR energy

QUESTION 223

How is radiation attenuated?

ANSWER

Scattering and absorption

QUESTION 224

What is a thermal ghost?

ANSWER

This happens when an object like an aircraft shields the background from absorbing the IR energy emitted from the sun. The thermal ghost is the shadow that is created after the object is moved.

QUESTION 225

What are some limiting factors for IR energy?

ANSWER

Clouds and precipitation, sun's position, and wind.

QUESTION 226

What is transmission of visible light?

ANSWER

Transmission is the passing of light through either a transparent or translucent medium

QUESTION 227

What is diffraction?

ANSWER

When light passes over the edge of an opaque object becoming scattered slightly or diffracted. You can see diffraction as a shadow with a fuzzy edge when an opaque object is placed so that it partially blocks the path of the rays from a point source of light

QUESTION 228

Some of the strongest returns of an ISR radarscope are?

ANSWER

Man made objects

QUESTION 229

What are the factors that influence the strength of reflected radar energy?

ANSWER

Large flat surfaces, dense reflective materials, multiple reflections, and aircraft altitude

QUESTION 230

What is the most apparent radar feature of industrial facilities?

ANSWER

The most readily apparent feature of industrial facilities is the concentration of L-shaped returns

QUESTION 231

Railroad tracks do not necessarily show on radar. What reflection do we see that would indicate a railroad track?

ANSWER

It is not the railroad track that shows on real-beam radar, but the supporting earth works

QUESTION 232

Why do highway surfaces tend to reflect radar away from the aircraft?

ANSWER

Because of their smooth surface, highways tend to reflect radar energy away from the aircraft

QUESTION 233

Why do truss bridges show up well on radar?

ANSWER

Truss bridges usually shows very well on a radarscope due to the extent of external bracing

QUESTION 234

What is one important potential use of IR sensors?

ANSWER

One of the important potential uses of IR sensors is to identify heat sources used in industry

QUESTION 235

Name three categories of facilities/activities that IR is helpful in identifying

ANSWER

(1) Industrial facilities (2) Transportation networks (3) Order of battle activites

QUESTION 236

How can an IR sensor determine whether or not an aircraft has recently been flown?

ANSWER

It will image and show that the engines of a recently flown aircraft are much hotter that the rest of the aircraft

QUESTION 237

What is the main reconnaissance value of IR imagery?

ANSWER

Detecting activity

QUESTION 238

When completing the career development course, how much time is given to complete each volume?

ANSWER

30 days

QUESTION 239

What Air Force Instruction can you reference to determine trainee responsibilities?

ANSWER

AFI 36-2201, Vol 3

QUESTION 240

What Air Force Instruction is referred to as the "little brown book", and gives you information on the enlisted tier responsibilities?

ANSWER

AFI 36-2618

QUESTION 241

Commanders will not prosecute a target without ______.

ANSWER

Intelligence

QUESTION 242

The purpose of critical thinking is to ask yourself questions in order to ensure your conclusions have all of the following EXCEPT ________.

ANSWER

Substance

QUESTION 243

Name one of the most common methods for conducting intelligence analysis used for identifying connections of known information between objects.

ANSWER

Link analysis

QUESTION 244

Who is inherently responsible for base force protection (FP)?

ANSWER

Commanders

QUESTION 245

The application of active and passive defense measures, employed across the legally-defined ground dimension of the operational environment, to mitigate potential risks, and defeat adversary threats to Air Force operations is known as what?

ANSWER

Integrated Defense

QUESTION 246

What do the objectives of integrated defense provide for the conduct of integrated defense?

ANSWER

A central focus

QUESTION 247

What is the area outside the base perimeter from which the base may be vulnerable from standoff threats?

ANSWER

BSZ (Base Security Zone)

QUESTION 248

What agency is the Air Force's main focal point for CI activities?

ANSWER

AFOSI

QUESTION 249

Which threat comes from assigned personnel, host-country nationals, third country nationals, or other persons assigned to or transiting the AOR?

ANSWER

Insider

QUESTION 250

Which type of attack targets Air Force personnel and infrastructure through psychological operations, propaganda, electronic attacks, and network attacks?

ANSWER

Information operations

QUESTION 251

Which type of attack utilizes suicide bombers and civilian airliners as weapons?

ANSWER

Terrorist

QUESTION 252

Identification of needs for intelligence regarding all aspects of the operational environment start with which phase of the intelligence process?

ANSWER

Planning and direction

QUESTION 253

"What is the current locations of the adversary SA-20 battery" is an example of what?

ANSWER

Priority Intelligence Requirment

QUESTION 254

What is the intelligence annex of a CONPLAN or OPLAN?

ANSWER

Annex B

QUESTION 255

At what level of collection are the national agencies involved?

ANSWER

Strategic

QUESTION 256

What determines the success of retasking a mission for collection?

ANSWER

The capabilities of the asset

QUESTION 257

What collection method is conducted openly and may be acknowledged by and attributed to its sponsor?

ANSWER

Overt

QUESTION 258

What phase in the ISR process comes after the collection phase?

ANSWER

Processing and exploitation

QUESTION 259

What is the best guide to the reliability of a source of information?

ANSWER

Past performance

QUESTION 260

During ______ information is received, collated, and entered into appropriate databases by the analysis and production elements of intelligence community organizations.

ANSWER

Integration

QUESTION 261

Intelligence production must be _____ and ______ to provide non-duplicative, all-source intelligence products to the requester.

ANSWER

Coordinated and directed

QUESTION 262

What two steps in the analysis and production phase attempt to determine the truthfulness of the information?

ANSWER

Evaluation and analysis

QUESTION 263

In which step of the Analysis and Production Phase is information considered finished intelligence?

ANSWER

Interpretation

QUESTION 264

Why does the military still utilize hardcopy dissemination methods?

ANSWER

Allied and coalition forces often do not have the ability to utilize the same system architecture

QUESTION 265

What is the primary vehicle for integrating intelligence and operations?

ANSWER

Common Operational Picture (COP)

QUESTION 266

Who evaluates the quality of intelligence products?

ANSWER

Intelligence personnel and consumers at all levels

QUESTION 267

When performing your duties with intelligence collection and reporting, what is one reason you should perform training for aircrew?

ANSWER

Because aircrew are a valuable source of perishable intelligence and training the aircrew what to report can ensure they report important intelligence

QUESTION 268

Which prosign would be utilized when intelligence is received that our forces have made initial enemy contact?

ANSWER

ZZ

QUESTION 269

Which type of intelligence data includes information on the number of aircraft on a specific mission?

ANSWER

Operational data

QUESTION 270

What type of reporting is difficult for aircrew due to the small size of weapons utilized?

ANSWER

AAA engagements

QUESTION 271

How many steps are involved in mission reporting?

ANSWER

4

QUESTION 272

Which should be reported by aircrew for both AAA and SAM sightings?

ANSWER

Fire coordination

QUESTION 273

Where can you find the process for submitting a MISREP?

ANSWER

SPINS

QUESTION 274

What are the required administrative data sets for a MISREP?

ANSWER

TARWI

QUESTION 275

What initial report would be submitted if an aircrew passes an INFLTREP regarding a column of tanks advancing toward our forward line of troops?

ANSWER

INTREP

QUESTION 276

Identify the report that is similar to an INTSUM, but contains more refined analytical information.

ANSWER

DISUM

QUESTION 277

This traditional ISR asset was originally designed as a maritime patrol and anti-submarine aircraft.

ANSWER

MR Mk1P Nimrod

QUESTION 278

What non-traditional ISR asset was purchased to fill the void left behind from the retirement of the TARPS system?

ANSWER

SHARP

QUESTION 279

This model is a tool used to characterize the sort of processes that typically happen in a collection cycle for a given sensor.

ANSWER

Tasking, collection, processing, exploitation, and dissemination (TCPED)

QUESTION 280

This process of the TCPED model refers to the mission planning and execution of operations.

ANSWER

Collection

QUESTION 281

This weapon system is the operational-level command and control center that provides the Commander Air Force Forces with the capability to direct and supervise the activities of assigned forces.

ANSWER

Air and space operations center (AOC)

QUESTION 282

The primary products of this division include the air tasking order (ATO), airspace control order (ACO) and joint integrated prioritized target list (JIPTL).

ANSWER

Combat Plans Division

QUESTION 283

The ISRD team conducts dynamic intelligence preparation of the operational environment and provides the context for understanding the adversary's intentions.

ANSWER

Analysis, correlation and fusion team (ACF)

QUESTION 284

Which team within the air mobility division coordinates closely with the rescue coordination cell?

ANSWER

Aeromedical evacuation control team

QUESTION 285

What team is the focal point for the ISRD for implementing, coordinating and maintaining PED support from agencies outside the AOC?

ANSWER

The PED Management team

QUESTION 286

What are the phases of the mission planning cycle?

ANSWER

Receive the ATO, Pre-mission brief, mission planning, mission planning validation, execution, MPC Brief

QUESTION 287

Which charts will normally depict the target areas for mission planning?

ANSWER

JOG

QUESTION 288

In the third phase of the air tasking cycle, what provides the basis for weaponeering assessment activities?

ANSWER

JIPTL

QUESTION 289

What aircraft/callsign is assigned to the mission? MSNACFT/2/ACTYP:F-16C/TEXAN01/A1/111/22222/2222

ANSWER

F-16 C / TEXAN01

QUESTION 290

What is used to get an aircraft to specific areas for mission accomplishment, and do not have altitude restrictions?

ANSWER

ATR

QUESTION 291

Who is the office of primary responsibility for the section of the SPINS that provides guidance to subordinate and supporting commanders of the JFACCs overall C2 battle plan?

ANSWER

C2 Planning

QUESTION 292

What is the purpose of the first step of the IPOE process?

ANSWER

To define the intelligence problem by identifying the specific aspects of the environment, the activities within it, and the space where they exist

QUESTION 293

What does a thorough pre-conflict analysis alleviate when it can be accomplished?

ANSWER

Time constraint problems

QUESTION 294

Usually the aerospace environment is divided into two sub-dimensions. What are they?

ANSWER

Air and space

QUESTION 295

What is classified as the area of concern including the area of influence, areas adjacent thereto, and extending into enemy territory to the objectives of current or planned operations?

ANSWER

Area of interest (AOI)

QUESTION 296

What is the purpose of the second step in the IPOE process?

ANSWER

To determine how the battlespace affects adversary and friendly operations

QUESTION 297

Which dimension of the physical environment is not constrained by physical boundaries?

ANSWER

Space

QUESTION 298

Which of the following is probably the most important human dimension characteristic to consider?

ANSWER

Political

QUESTION 299

Give examples of broad COAs.

ANSWER

(1) Air COA - attack, defend, disperse, evade, harden (2) Space COA - attack, deny, launch additional assets (3) Information COA - attack, defend, gain, or exploit

QUESTION 300

What are the three elements that intelligence threat models consist of?

ANSWER

(1) Doctrinal templates (2) Description of preferred TTPs, options, and follow on activity (3) ID of high value targets (HVT) or high payoff targets (HPT)

QUESTION 301

In which step of the IPOE process will you determine the current adversary situation?

ANSWER

Evaluate the adversary

QUESTION 302

Step 4 of the IPOE process identifies and develops ______.

ANSWER

The adversary's likely COA that will influence accomplishment of the command's mission

QUESTION 303

What are considered "wildcard" tactics for adversary COAs?

ANSWER

Ignorance of the military arts and sciences, immature decision making, uncertainty as to friendly disposition or intent, unexpected objectives or desired end states, desperation, bureaucratic inefficiency

QUESTION 304

In what order should courses of action be developed?

ANSWER

In order of it's probability of adoption

QUESTION 305

What provides the updated intelligence baseline on which to make operational assessments?

ANSWER

IPOE process

QUESTION 306

What is the role of the intelligence staff?

ANSWER

Direct the IPOE process

QUESTION 307

What is the term that refers to energy that spreads out as it travels away from its source?

ANSWER

Radiation

QUESTION 308

What is the rate at which pulses or pulse groups are transmitted?

ANSWER

PRF

QUESTION 309

Beam width error increases with _______.

ANSWER

Range

QUESTION 310

The distance a target is from the radar site at the time of detection is called what?

ANSWER

Range

QUESTION 311

What is the most common type of radar design?

ANSWER

Pulse

QUESTION 312

Which type of radar was developed to overcome the limitations and jamming susceptibility of scanning radar systems?

ANSWER

Monopulse

QUESTION 313

Identify the method of scan that continuously scans 360 degrees in azimuth.

ANSWER

Conical

QUESTION 314

Identify the radar system that warns of an impending attack by hostile aircraft.

ANSWER

Early Warning

QUESTION 315

This type of jamming uses a wide-band noise transmitter designed to deny the use of frequencies over wide portions of the EM spectrum.

ANSWER

Barrage

QUESTION 316

Name SEAD assets

ANSWER

F-16CJ, HTS Pd and AGM-88

QUESTION 317

What samples the receiver noise content at the end of each PRF and sets the gain accordingly for the next pulse interval?

ANSWER

Automatic gain control

QUESTION 318

In the Rivet Joint's electronic support mission, it provides ______ to national and theater consumers.

ANSWER

SIGINT

QUESTION 319

What is the measure of how well an object absorbs incident IR radiation and reradiates it?

ANSWER

Emissivity

QUESTION 320

What occurs as radiation travels through the Earth's atmosphere and scatters and becomes absorbed?

ANSWER

Attenuation of radiation

QUESTION 321

Which visible light concept refers to the bending of a ray of light?

ANSWER

Refraction

QUESTION 322

When considering the radar significance of cultural features in suburban area, what will reflect less energy than the concrete and masonry used in urban areas?

ANSWER

Shingle roofs, wooden construction, glass and dirt

QUESTION 323

What provides the key to interpretation of railroad tracks?

ANSWER

The filling in of low areas and cutting through rolling terrains

QUESTION 324

When classifying the radar returns of military installations, what is the usual method of classification?

ANSWER

Classify the installation into broad category first

QUESTION 325

What type of radar returns are generally produced by ships on real-beam systems?

ANSWER

Small and bright returns

QUESTION 326

What will produce "hot" infrared signatures?

ANSWER

Boilers and furnaces

QUESTION 327

What factors will affect the thermal signature of equipment?

ANSWER

Painted equipment, netted equipment, aircraft, ground vehicles and activity and naval activity

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